Why do we study the development of children? - ExamTest 1

Questions

Question 1

Which statement is true?

1. It is not possible to suppose that children tell the truth in court.
2. Specifically, young children are susceptible for suggestive questioning, when questions are repeated again and again.

1. Only statement 1 is true.
2. Only statement 2 is true.
3. Both statements are true.
4. Both statements are false.

Question 2

Which statement is true? Children can experience negative effects when they...

1. Have been in an unstable environment longer than 1 month after birth.
2. Have been in an unstable environment longer than 3 months after birth.
3. Have been in an unstable environment longer than 6 months after birth.
4. Have been in an unstable environment longer than 1 year after birth.

Question 3

Which general conclusion can be drawn about continuous/discontinuous development, despite some disagreement over the topic?

1. Development is mainly a continuous process.
2. Development is mainly a discontinuous process, as proved in the stage theories.
3. It depends on how you look at it and how often you look.
4. Development is sometimes a continuous and sometimes a discontinuous process.

Question 4

Which research design has the advantage of being able to observe the change of individuals over time and the disadvantage that repeated testing reduces external validity?

1. Longitudinal research
2. Observational research
3. Cross-sectional research
4. Correlational Research

Question 5

The "turtle shell" technique is an example of a successful intervention that helps preschoolers cope with ...

1. The sense of isolation.
2. Feelings of embarrassment.
3. Bullying from peers.
4. Their own anger.

Question 6

What is meta-analysis?

1. The reproduction of a past study in order to confrim or debunk the results.
2. A philosophical exploration of an experiment or case study.
3. A method for combining and analyzing the results from several independent studies.
4. A list of all published articles related to a specific area of research.

Question 7

Studies have shown that children's testimony is usually accurate when which of the following conditions are met?

1. The interviewer does not ask leading questions.
2. One of the child's parents is present.
3. The child and the interviewer are alone when the testimony is given.
4. The child is repeatedly prompted during the interview.

Question 8

According to developmentalists, which of the following statements is true?

1. Development is most heavily influenced by nature.
2. Development is most heavily influenced by nurture.
3. Development is influenced by thejoint working of nature and nurture.
4. Nature and nurture are essentially the same.

Question 9

The concept of the "active child" refers to ...

1. Observations of children at play.
2. Whether an infant sleeps through the night.
3. The importance of physical activity to child development.
4. How children contribute to their own environment.

Question 10

In recent decades, researchers have come to the conclusion that, after infancy, most developmental changes occur ...

1. Gradually.
2. Suddenly.
3. Discontinuously.
4. Externally.

Question 11

In the context of mechanisms of developmental change, the study of the development of "effortful attention" provides insights into ...

1. Continuous versus discontinuous development.
2. The role of brain activity, genes, and learning experiences.
3. The complexity of the child's sociocultural environment.
4. The role of the researcher in judging the validity of a study.

Question 12

The physical, social, cultural, economic, and historical circumstances that make up a child's environment are known as ...

1. The developmental foundation.
2. The sociocultural context.
3. The developmental stage.
4. The socioeconomic status.

Question 13

The first basic step in using the scientific method involves ...

1. Developing a research plan.
2. Choosing a question.
3. Formulating a hypothesis.
4. Drawing a conclusion.

Question 14

In order to generalize her findings beyond the individuals who participated in her study, Dr. Liu needs to conduct additional research using participants from a variety of backgrounds. What quality of behavioral research is Dr. Liu addressing?

1. Interrater reliability.
2. Internal validity.
3. Test-retest reliability.
4. External validity.

Question 15

The experience that children in an experimental group receive - and which children in a control group do not receive - is referred to as the ...

1. Dependent variable.
2. Independent variable.
3. Random assignment.
4. Correlational design.

Answers

Question 1

B. Research shows that younger children forget details more often, but what they say is mainly based on the truth.

Question 2

C. Research shows that children who have been in deprivation for less than 6 months after birth, will experience no negative effects later in life. However, if this period is longer than 6 months, they can experience negative effects later in life, despite they might be in a stable environment.

Question 3

C. Stage theories seem to argue for a discontinuous development. Parents see their children grow up a bit every day, they see the continuity of the development of their child, whereas a friend of the family might see huge changes since he last saw the child.

Question 4

A. Longitudinal research is a method that focuses on the behavior of children of the same age over a longer period of time, in which measurements are repeated. An advantage of this method is that the degree of stability can be determined over a longer period. The information obtained also says something about the patterns of changes over time. However, this method also has disadvantages: often many participants drop out ("dropouts"), for various reasons. Repeated measurements can also affect the external validity of the study.

Question 5

D. The intervention is aimed at helping preschoolers cope with their own anger.

Question 6

C. A meta-analysis is a method for combining and analyzing the results from several independent studies.

Question 7

A. The interviewer should not ask leading questions, as children are very vulnerable for compliance.

Question 8

C. According to developmentalists, development is influenced by the joint workings of nature and nurture.

Question 9

D. The "active child" refers to how children contribute to their own development, or in other words how they play an "active role" in it.

Question 10

A. In recent decades, researchers have come to the conclusion that, after infancy, most developmental changes occur gradually.

Question 11

B. The study of the development of "effortful attention" provides insights to the role of brain activity, genes, and learning experiences.

Question 12

B. It is known as the sociocultural context.

Question 13

B. The first step is to choose a research question.

Question 14

D. She refers to external validity.

Question 15

B. The independent variable.

How does prenatal development work? - ExamTests 2

Questions

Question 1

When does a fertilized egg be called 'fetus'?

1. Directly after conception.
2. After three weeks.
3. After nine weeks.
4. After three months.

Question 2

What is cell differentiation?

1. The process that takes place 12 hours after fertilization.
2. The process whereby cells specialize in structure and function.
3. The process of movement of newly formed cells away from their original location.
4. The process whereby redundant cells are destroyed.

Question 3

Which of the following is no consequence of being small for gestational age?

1. Learning problems.
2. Social problems.
3. Increased risk of infections.
4. Insufficient growth.

Question 4

In what phase of development do teratogens cause the most severe damage?

1. Directly after conception.
2. In the fetal phase of prenatal development.
3. In the embryonic phase of prenatal development.
4. In post-natal development.

Question 5

Which of the following statements about sensitive periods in prenatal development is correct?

1. The sensitive periods of the first major organ systems are simultaneous.
2. Teratogens have the most severe effect on prenatal development just prior to the development of an organ system.
3. The sensitive period of an organ is the period in which the basic structures of this organ are formed.
4. The sensitive period of limb development occurs several weeks before limb development begins.

Question 6

The single cell that forms when two gametes merge during conception is called a ...

1. Zygote.
2. Ova.
3. Sperm.
4. Embryo.

Question 7

Which process of prenatal development is critical to the specialization of cells?

1. Cell division.
2. Synaptogenesis.
3. Cell differentiation.
4. Apoptosis.

Question 8

Harry and Ron are genetically identical twins and are referred to as ... . Althea (a genetic female) and Stephen (a genetic male) are also twins but are clearly ... twins.

1. Monozygotic; identical.
2. Dizygotic; fraternal.
3. Dizygotic; monozygotic.
4. Monozygotic; dizygotic.

Question 9

Which of the following systems protects the developing embryo from dangerous toxins?

1. Amniotic sac.
2. Placenta.
3. Umbilical cord.
4. Neural tube.

Question 10

The disproportionaly large head of a 5-month-old fetus is a typical result of the normal process of ...

1. Cephalocaudal development.
2. Proximal-distal development.
3. Lateral development.
4. Bottom-up development.

Question 11

Which of the following sense is the least active while the fetus is in the womb?

1. Hearing.
2. Smell.
3. Taste.
4. Sight.

Question 12

Logan's dad is thrilled as Logan laughs each time he shows him a new toy: a monkey that squeaks when he pushes on its belly. After repeated exposure to the squeaking monkey, Logan becomes bored and no longer laughs. This process is known as ...

1. Habituation.
2. Dishabituation.
3. Classical conditioning.
4. Operant conditioning.

Question 13

The DeCasper and Spence study, in which pregnant women read aloud twice a day from the same book during their last 6 weeks of pregnancy, was designed to assess ... .

1. Fetal attention.
2. Fetal learning.
3. Infant attention.
4. Infant learning.

Question 14

Which of the following does not influence the severity of the effect of a teratogen on a developing fetus?

1. Timing of exposure.
2. Quantity of exposure.
3. Duration of exposure.
4. Number of previous pregnancies.

Question 15

Which is not a symptom of fetal alcohol syndrome?

1. Facial deformities.
2. Intellectual disability.
3. Underactivity.
4. Attention problems.

Answers

Question 1

C. The first two weeks, it is called zygote, from 3 to 8 weeks embryo.

Question 2

B. A is mitosis, C is cell migration and D is apoptosis.

Question 3

D. Children that are small for gestational age are mostly left alone to decrease the risk of infection. This also prevents the emergence of social and learning problems.

Question 4

C. Tereatogens can cause the most severe damage during the embryonic phase of development.

Question 5

C. The sensitive period of an organ is the period in which the basic structures of this organ are formed.

Question 6

A. It is called a zygote.

Question 7

C. Cell differentiation is the process that is critical to the specialization of cells.

Question 8

D. Harry and Ron are genetically identical twins and are referred to as monozygotic. Althea (a genetic female) and Stephen (a genetic male) are also twins but are clearly dizygotic twins.

Question 9

B. The placenta protects the embryo from these dangerous toxins.

Question 10

A. Cephalocaudal development refers to prenatal growth and development that occurs from the head down.

Question 11

D. Sight.

Question 12

A. It is called habituation.

Question 13

B. Fetal learning.

Question 14

D. The number of previous pregnancies of the mother does not influence the severity of the effect of a teratogen on a developing fetus.

Question 15

C. Underactivity is not a symptom of fetal alcohol syndrome, caused by (excessive) alcohol consumption by the mother during prenatal development.

How do nature and nurture play a role in development? - ExamTest 3

Questions

Question 1

Which of the following is true?

1. Adoption studies examine whether siblings who grew up apart, are more different than siblings who were raised together.
2. Adoptive twin studies compare identical twins who grew up together versus identical twins who were raised apart.

1. Only statement 1 is true.
2. Only statement 2 is true.
3. Both statements are true.
4. Both statements are false.

Question 2

Which statement about heritability is true?

1. Heritability gives information about certain populations.
2. Heritability gives information about individuals.
3. High heritability means that a certain trait is unchangeable.
4. Heritability gives information about differences between certain groups.

Question 3

1. More boys than girls are born.
2. Boys are more likely to be delivered by C-section than girls.
3. The Y chromosome fertilizes an egg more aften than the X chromosome.

Which statement(s) is / are correct?

1. Statement I is correct, statements II and III are incorrect.
2. Proposition I and II are correct, Proposition III is incorrect.
3. All statements are correct.
4. All statements are incorrect.

Question 4

What is the genotype?

1. The inherited genetic material of an individual.
2. The observable expression of the genes, namely the bodily characteristics and behavior.
3. The all-encompassing aspect of an individual and his / her surrounding aspects.
4. The heritable changes that do not involve alterations in the DNA sequence.

Question 5

Father has a dominant brown gene and a recessive green gene. Mother has a dominant green gene and a recessive green gene. What are the chances of their child having green eyes?

1. 25%.
2. 50%.
3. 75%.
4. 100%.

Question 6

What do we mean by passive gene-environment interactions?

1. The child's environment is changed by the genes.
2. A child evokes reactions from the environment through which certain genes are expressed.
3. The child's environment matches his / her genes, because the child's genes make sure he / she chooses a particular environment.
4. A child's genes are changed by the environment.

Question 7

Marcus has red hair, green eyes, and freckles. He is very active but shy. These characteristics are a reflecten of Marcus's ...

1. Dominant genes.
2. Recessive genes.
3. Genotype.
4. Phenotype.

Question 8

An individual's genetic sex is determined by ...

1. Whether the mother has a Y chromosome.
2. The random interaction of the sex chromosomes of the mother and father.
3. The sex chromosomes contributed by the mother.
4. The sex chromosomes contributed by the father.

Question 9

The continual switching on or off of specific genes at specific times throughout development is hte result of a chain of genetic events primarily controlled by ...

1. Alleles.
2. Regulator genes.
3. Glial cells.
4. Synaptogenesis.

Question 10

Traits such as aggression and shyness are the result of the contributions of a complex combination of genes. These traits are examples of which process?

1. Polygenetic inhberitance.
2. Experience-expectant plasticity.
3. Mendelian inheritance.
4. Experience-dependent plasticity.

Question 11

A twin-study design project reveals that the correlation between identical (MZ) twins on a given trait is substantially higher than that between fraternal (DZ) twins. Which of the following statements offers the most plausible explanation for the difference in how this trait is correlated in MZ twins compared with DZ twins?

1. Environmental factors are substantially responsible for the difference in correlation.
2. Genetic factors are substantially responsible for the difference in correlation.
3. Environmental and genetic factors are equally responsible for the difference in correlation.
4. No assumption can be made as to the contributions of environmental or genetic factors for the difference.

Question 12

Which of the following responses would be consistent with the statement "high heritability does not imply immutability"?

1. The concept of inheritance plays a very small role in dictating an individual's phenotype.
2. Highly heritable traits affect all individuals in the same way.
3. Intervention efforts can successfully influence the course of development related to an inherited trait.
4. There is little point in trying to improve the course of development related to an inherited trait.

Question 13

The points at which neurons communicate with one another are called ...

1. Synapses.
2. Glial cells.
3. Dendrites.
4. Myelin sheaths.

Question 14

The process of synaptogenesis ...

1. Involves the formation of connections between neurons.
2. Causes the elimination of excess neurons.
3. Is basically complete before birth.
4. Is the proliferation of neurons through cell division.

Question 15

The capacity of the brain to be molded or changed by experience is referred to as ...

1. Synaptogenesis.
2. Associative learning.
3. Plasticity.
4. Neurogenesis.

Answers

Question 1

B. Adoption studies examine differences in traits between adopted and biological children and examine if the children resemble their biological relatives more than their adoptive ones.

Question 2

A. The other three answers are misconceptions about heritability.

Question 3

C. All statements are correct: More boys than girls are born, boys are more likely to be delivered by C-section than girls, and the Y chromosome fertilizes an egg more often than the X chromosome.

Question 4

A. The genotype is the inherited genetic material of an individual. Answer B refers to 'phenotype', answer C refers to 'environment', and answer D refers to 'epigenetics'.

Question 5

A. The chances are 25%.

Question 6

B. A child evokes reactions from the environment through which certain genes are expressed.

Question 7

D. Phenotype.

Question 8

D. The sex chromosomes contributed by the father: Whether the genetic father passes on his X-chromosome or his Y-chromosome.

Question 9

B. Regulator cells control this process.

Question 10

A. Polygenetic inheritance.

Question 11

B. Genetic factors are substantially responsible for the difference in correlation.

Question 12

C. Intervention efforts can successfully influence the course of development related to an inherited trait.

Question 13

A. Synapses are the points at which neurons communicate with one another.

Question 14

A. It involves the formation of connections between neurons.

Question 15

C. Plasticity.

What are different theories on the cognitive development of children? - ExamTest 4

Questions

Question 1

Which concept of Piaget is defined by the following: The process by which people process incoming information according to concepts they already understand.

1. Modification.
2. Equilibration.
3. Assimilation.
4. Accommodation.

Question 2

Which of the following is the right order of Piaget's stages?

1. Sensorimotor stage, preoperational stage, concrete operational stage, formal operational stage.
2. Sensorimotor stage, preoperational stage, formal operational stage, concrete operational stage.
3. Preoperational stage, sensorimotor stage, concrete operational stage, formal operational stage.
4. Preoperational stage, sensorimotor stage, formal operational stage, concrete operational stage.

Question 3

Which of the following is true?

1. Core-knowledge theorist propose that children are born with general knowledge and that they expand this knowledge gradually. Piaget proposes that children are born with both general knowledge and specialized learning mechanisms to acquire additional information.
2. Core-knowledge theorist see the child as scientist, Piaget sees the child as a well-adapted product of evolution.

1. Only statement 1 is true.
2. Only statement 2 is true.
3. Both statements are true.
4. Both statements are false.

Question 4

What are the three hallmarks of Piaget's Constructivism?

1. The child is a scientist, learning happens through the environment, and extrinsic motivation.
2. The child is a 'blank slate', learning is done by the environment, and intrinsic motivation.
3. The child is a scientist, learning is done independently, and has extrinsic motivation.
4. The child is a scientist, learning is done independently, and has intrinsic motivation.

Question 5

Which theory focuses most on the innate learning skills of a child?

1. Information processing theory.
2. Piaget's Theory.
3. Dynamic systems theory.
4. Core knowledge theory.

Question 6

According to Piaget, development is both continuous and discontinuous. Which of the following aspects of Piagetian theory would be considered a source of discontinuity?

1. Assimilation.
2. Accommodation.
3. Equilibration.
4. Invariant stages.

Question 7

A noted accomplishment during Piaget's sensorimotor stage is ...

1. Symbolic representation.
2. Object permanence.
3. Conservation.
4. Egocentrism.

Question 8

According to information-processing theories, the ability to encode, store, and retrieve information is referred to as ...

1. Memory.
2. Rehearsal.
3. Metacognition.
4. Retrieval.

Question 9

Information-processing theories note several limits on children's thinking. Which of the following is not one of these limits?

1. Memory capacity.
2. Implementation of task analysis.
3. Speed of processing information.
4. Ability to utilize problem-solving strategies.

Question 10

Overlapping waves theory explains children's ability to ...

1. Selectively attend to the most relevant aspect of a problem.
2. Identify the obstacles in ahcieving a goal.
3. Effectively process mental operations.
4. Discover new strategies that lead to more efficient problem solving.

Question 11

According to core-knowledge theorists, children possess naïve theories in what three major domains?

1. Mathematics, psychology, and arts.
2. Biology, sociology, and psychology.
3. Biology, physics, and psychology.
4. Sociology, physics, and psychology.

Question 12

Five-year-old Marcus is learning gymnastics. He's having trouble on the balance beam, so his teacher assits by holding his hand as he walks across. This interaction can be described as ...

1. Guided participation.
2. Discovery learning.
3. Intersubjectivity.
4. The jigsaw approach.

Question 13

Jamal is walking with his mother. He taps her on the arm, points to an animal, and says, "Doggie!" This is an example of ...

1. Social scaffolding.
2. Joint attention.
3. Cultural tools.
4. Directed learning.

Question 14

Although Piaget argues that infants younger than 8 months fail the A-not-B error test due to a lack of object permanence, proponents of dynamic-systems theories argue their failure is ...

1. Due to a combination of habit, memory demands, and focus of attention.
2. Influenced by the infant's motor abilities.
3. Caused by an infant's fragile attachment to the hidden object.
4. Influenced by infant fatigue.

Question 15

Although 15-month-old Lena has been walking unassisted for several months, on recent trips to the park her father has noticed Lena walking on some areas of the playground but crawling on others. Lena's regression from walking to crawling in this example is best explained by which theory?

1. Constructivist theory.
2. Overlapping waves theory.
3. Sociocultural theories.
4. Information-processing theories.

Answers

Question 1

C. Accommodation is the process by which people adapt current knowledge structures in response to new experiences. Equilibration is the process by which children balance assimilation and accommodation to create stable understanding. Modification is the inclination to react to the environment in such a way to reach personal goals.

Question 2

A. The correct order is sensorimotor stage, preoperational stage, concrete operational stage, formal operational stage.

Question 3

D. Both statements are exactly the opposite. Piaget proposes that children are born with general knowledge and that they expand this knowledge gradually. Core-knowledge theorists propose that children are born with both general knowledge and specialized learning mechanisms to rapidly acquire additional information. Piaget sees the child as scientist, core-knowledge theorists see the child as a well-adapted product of evolution.

Question 4

D. The child is a scientist, learning is done independently, and has intrinsic motivation.

Question 5

D. The core-knowledge theory.

Question 6

D. Invariant stages are considered an example of discontinuity in development.

Question 7

B. Object permanence is attained during the sensorimotor stage of development. Object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they cannot be seen, heard, or otherwise sensed.

Question 8

A. Memory is the ability to encode, sotre, and retrieve information.

Question 9

B. Implementation of task analysis is not considered a limit on children's thinking.

Question 10

D. Overlapping waves theory explains children's ability to discover new strategies that lead to more efficient problem solving.

Question 11

C. Children possess naïve theories in biology, physics, and psychology.

Question 12

A. This is an example of guided participation.

Question 13

B. This is an example of joint attention. Joint attention is the ability to engage in certain social interactions such as sharing, following and focusing attention on an object or event through the use of eye movements and gestures and attuning them to the other person.

Question 14

A. Proponents of dynamic-systems theories would claim this failure is due to a combination of habit, memory demands, and focus of attention.

Question 15

B. This example is best explained by the overlapping waves theory.

How do children develop perception, action, and learning? - ExamTest 5

Questions

Question 1

Which concept is defined in the following? The processing of basic information from the external world by the sensory receptors in the sense organs and brain.

1. Perception.
2. Observation.
3. Sensation.
4. Information processing.

Question 2

Fill in: Infants have high/poor contrast sensitivity, because the cones/rods in their retinas are immature.

1. High, cones.
2. High, rods.
3. Poor, cones.
4. Poor, rods.

Question 3

Which of the following is no reflex of a newborn?

1. Grasping.
2. Sucking.
3. Swallowing.
4. Splashing.

Question 4

Mutual understanding is also called ...

1. Theory of Mind.
2. Intermodal perception.
3. Intersubjectivity.
4. Active learning.

Question 5

A baby touches a block in a dark room. Then he enters a lit room where he sees a ball and a block. He chooses the square block. The familiarity that is shown in this example is due to ...

1. Active learning.
2. Intermodal perception.
3. Object constancy.
4. Perception constancy.

Question 6

A teddy bear makes a sound when you press it. A child realizes this and starts to press on the bear more often. How do we call this effect?

1. Classical conditioning.
2. Imitation.
3. Instrumental conditioning.
4. Active learning.

Question 7

How do babies learn about gravity?

1. When they are a few months old, they only have a basic understanding of gravity. This understanding develops further during the first year of life.
2. A basic understanding of gravity is innate.
3. Babies learn about gravity by trial-and-error during the first year of life.
4. Only after the first year of life do children learn to understand gravity.

Question 8

A young baby does not reach for an object that has just seen hidden. Piaget's interpretation of this is:

1. The baby is no longer interested in the object.
2. The baby is unaware of the object's existence.
3. The baby is not yet able to reach for the object.
4. The baby is not yet able to get the object out.

Question 9

A researcher presents an infant with two objects. To determine whether the infant is able to discriminate between the objects and favors one over the other, the researcher measures the amount of time the infant spends looking at each object. Which experimental technique is this researcher using?

1. Contrast sensitivity technique.
2. Visuel acuity method.
3. Preferential-looking method.
4. Active learning method.

Question 10

One-month-old Bella is hown a small cube that is close to her. Next she is shown a larger cube that is farther away from her. Because the two cubes are at different distances from Bella, they appear to be the same size. Bella's actions indicate that she recongizes that the second cube is larger, signifying that she has ...

1. Perceptual constancy.
2. ìntermodal perception.
3. Perceptual narrowing.
4. Optical expansion.

Question 11

Which of the following is a possible explanation for why young infants tend to have more trouble with auditory localization than older infants and children do?

1. Young infants are not adept at perceiving patterns, particularly sound patterns.
2. Young infants do not yet understand that sound can come from a variety of sources.
3. Children's ears do nut fully develop until they are close to 1 year old.
4. Young infants have smaller heads, which makes it more difficult for them to perceive whether a sound is closer to one ear or the other.

Question 12

Five-week-old Johnny is touched on the cheeck and promptly turns his head to the side that was touched. Johnny is displayed ...

1. Intermodal perception.
2. Contrast sensitivity.
3. the rooting reflex.
4. The tonic neck reflex.

Question 13

The violation-of-expectancy procedure provided evidence of what basic assumption about infants' understanding of their world?

1. Infants will repeat actions if they receive positive reinforcement from those actions.
2. Infants' imitative actions are limited to the actions of other humans.
3. Infants will look longer at a seemingly impossible event than at a possible event.
4. Infants' attention will diminish after repeated exposure to the same stimuli.

Question 14

How does the element of surprise aid in the process of active learning in infants?

1. Surprise instills fear, which prompts the child to seek out less risky situations.
2. Infants are more likely to search for explanation to unexpected events.
3. Parents can explain unexpected events to their children, thus helping them learn.
4. Infants are more likely to seek out situations that conform to their understanding.

Question 15

Which of the following is an example of perceptual narrowing?

1. Compared to older children and adults, infants are better able to distinguish between different individual monkeys.
2. Infants display a preference for top-heavy, upright faces.
3. Older infants will more likely attempts to grasp an object in a realistic photograph than the same object displayed in a line drawing.
4. As infants gain more experience, they become more adept at devising strategies for crawling down a steep slope.

Answers

Question 1

C. Perception is the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information.

Question 2

C. Infants have poor contrast sensitivity, because the cones in their retinas are immature.

Question 3

D. Splashing is not a reflex of a newborn.

Question 4

C. Intersubjectivity is another term for mutual understanding.

Question 5

B. Intermodal perception is the integration of the same stimulus in multiple modals of perception.

Question 6

C. Instrumental conditioning can also be called operant conditioning.

Question 7

A. When they are a few months old, they only have a basic understanding of gravity. This understanding develops further during the first year of life.

Question 8

B. The baby is not yet able to be aware of an object that he / she is not seeing.

Question 9

C. Preferential-looking technique.

Question 10

A. perceptual constancy.

Question 11

D. Young infants have smaller heads, which makes it more difficult for them to perceive whether a sound is closer to one ear or the other.

Question 12

C. Johnny is displaying the rooting reflex.

Question 13

C. Infants will look longer at a seemingly impossible events than at a possible event. The violation-of-expectancy method is a technique for studying infant cognition, based on habituation and dishabituation procedures, in which increases in an infant's looking time at an event or other stimulus are interpreted as evidence that the outcome he or she expected has not occurred.

Question 14

B. Infants are more likely to search for explanations to unexpected events.

Question 15

A. Compared to older children and adults, infants are better able to distinguish between different individual monkeys. This ability disappears as a consequence of perceptual narrowing.

How does language develop? - ExamTest 6

Questions

Question 1

Which concept is defined by the following? The smallest units of meaning in a language, composed of one or more units.

1. Semantics.
2. Phonemes.
3. Morphemes.
4. Syntax.

Question 2

What is the second step in learning language?

1. The preparation for the production of speech by means of repetitive consonant-vowel sequences.
2. The perception of speech, by means of rhythm, tempo, cadence, melody, etc.
3. The first words.
4. Categorical perception.

Question 3

A child says: "I getted that from my grandmother". 'Getted' consists of three ...

1. Phonemes.
2. Morphemes.
3. Syntaxes.
4. Modularities.

Question 4

What's the Importance of Infant Directed Talk?

1. It is critical to the child's language development.
2. It is critical to the child's attachment.
3. It is not necessary, but it increases the chance of secure attachment.
4. It is not necessary, but it is helpful for the language development of the child.

Question 5

What does someone specialized in the interactionist perspective on language development find interesting?

1. The ability to use the social environment of what the other says.
2. The components of language and grammar.
3. The (innate) mechanisms for language development.
4. The importance of non-verbal communication for language development.

Question 6

Language ... refers to the understanding of what others say; language ... refers to the process of speaking.

1. Comprehension; production.
2. Development; generativity.
3. Pragmatics; semantics.
4. Perception; distribution.

Question 7

Between 6 and 12 months of age, infants typiclaly experience a linguistic perceptual naarowing. What effect does this change have on their language development?

1. They become increasingly more sensitive to non-native speech sounds.
2. They focus more on the words they hear most frequently.
3. They become increasingly less sensitive to non-native speech sounds.
4. Their ability to distinguish between speech and other environmental sounds diminishes.

Question 8

Emily is given two pictures: one shows a flower, a word she already knows, and the other shows a unicorn, which is new to her. When asked to point to the "unicorn", Emily points to the unknown image, which is of unicorn. Which assumption is Emily making in order to learn this new word?

1. Social contexts.
2. Intentionality.
3. Mutual exclusivity.
4. Grammatical categorization.

Question 9

Which of the following statements is not true of infant-directed speech (IDS)?

1. The exaggerated tone and pitch of IDS is often accompanied by exaggerated facial expressions.
2. Infants tend to prefer infant-drected speech to adult-directed speech.
3. Evidence suggests that IDS is a universal practice across all cultures.
4. Infant-directed signing has similar attributes to infant-directed speech but in the visual modality.

Question 10

The tendency of specific sounds to frequently recur in a language is known as ...

1. Distributional properties.
2. Overregularization.
3. Synctactic bootstrapping.
4. Prosody.

Question 11

Six- to eight-month-old infants are better able to distinguish between phonemes spoken in a non-native language than are infants who are just a few years older. This phenomenon is explained by ... .

1. Prosody.
2. Perceptual narrowing.
3. Underextension.
4. Overextension.

Question 12

Preschoolers Ahmed and Max are talking together. Ahmed says that his father is old. Max says that he likes cars. Ahmed say that his father is probably more than 10 years old. Max says that he likes blue cars the best. According to Piaget, Ahmed and Max are engaging in ... .

1. Babbling.
2. Private speech.
3. Dual representation.
4. Collective monologues.

Question 13

Chomsky's proposition that humans are born with an understanding of the basic principles and rules that govern all language is knwon as ... .

1. Mutual exclusivity theory.
2. The behaviorist theory of language development.
3. Universal Grammar.
4. The connectionist model.

Question 14

..., a computational modelling approach that has been applied to language development, emphasizes the simultaneous activity of numerous interconnected processing units.

1. Generative theory.
2. The distributional perspective.
3. Dual representation theory.
4. Connectionism.

Question 15

Dual representaiton refers to one's ability to ... .

1. Communicate both verbally and nonverbally.
2. Understand a symbolic artifact as both a real object and as a symbol for something else.
3. Understand that a single word may have more that one meaning.
4. Distinguish between the words that someone uses and the intention behind those words.

Answers

Question 1

C. Phonemes are the elementary units of meaningful sound used to produce languages. Syntax are the rules in a language that specify how words from different categories can be combined.

Question 2

A. This is also called babbling. B is the first step, C is the third step, D is the same step as B.

Question 3

B. 'Getted' consists of three morphemes.

Question 4

D. Infant Directed Talk is not necessary but can stimulate language development.

Question 5

A. The ability to use the social environment of what the other says.

Question 6

A. Language comprehension refers to the understanding of what others say; language production refers to the process of speaking.

Question 7

C. As a consequence of perceptual narrowing, children become increasingly less sensitive to non-native speech sounds.

Question 8

C. She uses the principle of mutual exclusivity.

Question 9

C. Evidence suggests that IDS is a universal practice across all cultures.

Question 10

A. distributional properties.

Question 11

B. perceptual narrowing.

Question 12

D. collective monologues.

Question 13

C. Universal Grammar.

Question 14

D. Connectionism is a computational modelling approach that has been applied to language development that emphasizes the simultaneous activity of numerous interconnected processing units

Question 15

B. Dual representaiton refers to one's ability to understand a symbolic artifact as both a real object and as a symbol for something else.

How does conceptual development take place? - ExamTest 7

Questions

Question 1

Which of the following does not belong to the three categories that children use to distinguish by categoral hierarchy?

1. Not-living things.
2. Animals.
3. Humans.
4. Living things.

Question 2

Which of the following is true?

1. An important component of false belief problems is the understanding of the relation between desires and actions.
2. Theory of mind is the understanding of how the mind works and how this influences behavior.

1. Only statement 1 is true.
2. Only statement 2 is true.
3. Both statements are true.
4. Both statements are false.

Question 3

Which of the following concepts is not developed by children to understand the world?

1. Space.
2. Causality.
3. Numbers.
4. Pace.

Question 4

Which concepts are in the order 'subordinate', 'basic', and 'superordinate'?

1. Car, jeep, means of transport.
2. Means of transport, car, jeep.
3. Jeep, car, means of transport.
4. Means of transport, jeep, car.

Question 5

What does essentialism mean?

1. The understanding that every living being has something other than what makes them what they are.
2. The theory that emphasizes innate mechanisms in conceptual development.
3. The theory that emphasizes the essential components of conceptual development.
4. The idea that conceptual development is different and takes place differently for each individual.

Question 6

Ormrod believed that in misconceptions conceptual change is prevented by ...

1. The occurrence of the misattrubution effect.
2. The occurrence of the confirmation bias.
3. The permanent consolidation of this information in the long-term memory.
4. The automation of association of this information.

Question 7

Steve Jobs holds a meeting where everyone has to contribute as many ideas as possible without looking at whether those ideas are feasible. This is an example of ...

1. Groupthink.
2. Uninhibited thinking.
3. Convergent thinking.
4. Divergent thinking.

Question 8

The belief that infants are born with some sense of fundamental concepts, such as time, space, and number, is a basic component of ... .

1. Naïve psychology.
2. Theory of mind.
3. Nativism.
4. Empiricism.

Question 9

In Krascum and Andrew's experiments, young children were better able to classify wugs and gillies after being told sotries explaining each creature's unique appearance. Their findings support the imnportance of ... .

1. Naïve psychology.
2. Causal relationships.
3. Magical thinking.
4. False beliefs.

Question 10

The proposed existence of a theory of mind model, which is the brain mechanism devoted to understanding other human beings, is most closely associated with advocates of which position?

1. Empiricism.
2. Existentialism.
3. Essentialism.
4. Nativism.

Question 11

What is the significance of the false-belief problem?

1. It illustrates that very young children do not understand that other people act on their own beliefs, even when those beliefs are false.
2. It presents evidence that young children children do not fully understand causal relationships.
3. It proves that there are certain false beliefs that an individual will maintain from early childhood into adolescence.
4. It supports the view that the age at which a child can understand other people's intentions varies by culture.

Question 12

A mother magically produces a coin from behind her 6-year-old son's ear. Which of the following scenarios describes the response of a typical 6-year-old?

1. The son searches his mother's hands, up her sleeves, and behind his ear to try to make sense of the event.
2. The son does not react to this unusual events.
3. The son does not find the trick funny and storms out of the room.
4. The son realizes immediately that the mother has hidden the coin in her hand.

Question 13

Nativists and empiricists have itnense debates about the development of spatial thinking, but on which of the following points do these two groups tend to agree?

1. Infants show little to no understanding of spatial concepts.
2. Self-movement does not appear to aid in the development of spatial learning.
3. Children are unable to use geometric information in locating objects.
4. The development of the hippocampus is related to improvements in spatial learning.

Question 14

In front of Sue are three balls, three teddy bears, three pencils, and three apples. Sue studies the groups of objects and realizes that they all share the property of "threeness". Sue is demonstrating an understanding of what concept?

1. Stable order.
2. Order irrelevance.
3. Numerical equality.
4. Abstraction.

Question 15

Which of the following statements describes the counting principle of abstraction?

1. Any set of discete objects or events can be counted.
2. Objects can be counted in any order.
3. Each object must be labeled by a single number word.
4. The numbers should always be recited in the same order.

Answers

Question 1

B. Animals, these belong to the category 'living things'.

Question 2

B. False beliefs are situations in which another person believes something to be true that the child knows is false.

Question 3

D. Pace does not belong to the central aspects of conceptual development.

Question 4

C. 'Jeep' is subordinate, 'car' is basic, and 'mode of transport' is superordinate.

Question 5

A. This understanding is the beginning of the conceptual development of living things.

Question 6

B. Het optreden van de confirmation bias.

Question 7

D. Divergent thinking.

Question 8

C. Nativism is the idea that infants are born with innate knowledge and/or skills.

Question 9

B. Causal relationships.

Question 10

D. Nativism.

Question 11

A. The false-belief problem illustrates that very young children do not understand that other people act on their own beliefs, even when those beliefs are false.

Question 12

A. A typical 6-year-old will search his mother's hands, up her sleeves, and behind his ear to try to make sense of the event.

Question 13

D. Nativists and empiricists agree that the development of the hippocampus is related to improvements in spatial learning.

Question 14

B. Numerical equality.

Question 15

A. The counting principle of abstraction is that any set of discrete objects or events can be counted..

What is intelligence and how does it develop? - ExamTest 8

Questions

Question 1

Which of the following statements is true?

1. Crystallized intelligence is the ability to think on the spot to solve novel problems.
2. Fluid intelligence is the factual knowledge about the world.

1. Only statement 1 is true.
2. Only statement 2 is true.
3. Both statements are true.
4. Both statements are false.

Question 2

Which intelligence test is used for children of 6 years and older?

1. The Stanford-Binet intelligence test.
2. Revisie Amsterdamse Kinder-Intelligentie-Test (Rakit).
3. The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC).
4. Raven's Progressive Matrices.

Question 3

Which of the following is true about IQ?

1. IQ scores are strong predictors of academic, economic and occupational achievements.
2. Correlations between individual alleles of genes and IQ are very small, genetic influences on intelligence reflect small contributions from each of a very large number of genes and interactions among them.

1. Only statement 1 is true.
2. Only statement 2 is true.
3. Both statements are true.
4. Both statements are false.

Question 4

At the age of three, children learn to count. What is NOT a principle of counting?

1. One-on-one counting.
2. Cardinality.
3. Order irrelevance.
4. Perceptual counting.

Question 5

The correlation between the IQ of an adopted child and its biological parent ...

1. Decreases over time due to interaction of the genotype with the environment.
2. Increases over time due to interaction of the genotype with the environment.
3. Disappears when the child leaves the biological parent.
4. Is 100%.

Question 6

What is the Flynn Effect?

1. It states that intelligence scores have increased at the top of the scale in the last 70 years.
2. It states that intelligence scores have declined at the top of the scale in the last 70 years.
3. It states that intelligence scores have increased at the bottom of the scale in the last 70 years.
4. It states that intelligence scores have declined at the bottom of the scale in the last 70 years.

Question 7

Early reading skills help for the development of ...

1. Phonological awareness, which leads to an increase in later reading skills.
2. Grammatical awareness, which leads to an increase in later reading skills.
3. Phonological awareness, which leads to an increase in later reading and writing skills.
4. Grammatical awareness, which leads to an increase in later reading and writing skills.

Question 8

What do mnemonic strategies result?

1. The storage of information in the long-term memory is enhanced.
2. The storage of information from working memory in long-term memory is facilitated.
3. The storage of the working memory is increased.
4. The information in the long-term memory can be retrieved more easily.

Question 9

The memory of last summer's vacation is an example of ...

1. Implicit knowledge.
2. Explicit knowledge.
3. Semantic knowledge.
4. Episodic knowledge.

Question 10

Paying attention to the information in the sensory buffer creates ...

1. Consolidation of this information in the auditory memory.
2. Information from the sensory memory is transferred to the working memory.
3. Consolidation of this information in the long term memory.
4. Information is integrated into the sensory buffer.

Question 11

Kim goes to the supermarket. She has no pen and paper so she has to remember her list. She divides her groceries into the categories "vegetables", "fruits" and "dairy". What's this called?

1. Mnemonics.
2. Organization.
3. Categorizing.
4. Consolidation.

Question 12

What are the three components of Sternberg's theory of successful intelligence?

1. Analytic abilities, practical abilities, and creative abilities.
2. Linguistic intelligence, logical-mathematical intelligence, and spatial intelligence.
3. Passive effects, evocative effects, and active efforts.
4. General intelligence, intermediate-level abilities, and specific processes.

Question 13

The HOME was developed to measure the complex influences of family environment on a child's intelligence. Though this meeasure can be used to predict a child's IQ score, why are researchers not able to conclude that better home environment causes higher scores?

1. Children's IQ scores tend to fluctuate widely with age.
2. This measure does not account for the influence of parents' genes on the home environment and the child's intelligence.
3. Children's IQ scores are not normally distributed and therefore cannot be used to draw causal relationships.
4. Subsequent measures have shown that home environment has little influence on intelligence.

Question 14

Which of the following statements is true regarding the relation between environmental risk and intelligence, according to the environmental risk scale?

1. Parental education level is the key factor in predicting a child's intellectual development.
2. BThe impact of additonal risks diminishes greatly after the presence of three risk factors.
3. The total number of risks is a better predictor of IQ than the presence of any single risk.
4. Though IQ score remains stable over time, the number of risk factors in a child's environment is highly variable.

Question 15

Which of the following statements best describes Carroll's three-stratum theory of intelligence?

1. Intelligence is best measured by reading, writing, and mathematical concepts.
2. Each individual can be categorized into one of three levels of intelligence.
3. Successful intelligence involves analytic, practical, and creative abilities.
4. General intelligence influences intermediate abilities, which influence specific processes.

Answers

Question 1

D. It is the other way around: Fluid intelligence is the ability to think on the spot to solve novel problems. Crystallized intelligence is factual knowledge about the world.

Question 2

C. The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC) is used for this age group.

Question 3

C. Both statements are true: IQ scores are strong predictors of academic, economic and occupational achievements. Correlations between individual alleles of genes and IQ are very small, genetic influences on intelligence reflect small contributions from each of a very large number of genes and interactions among them.

Question 4

D. Perceptual counting is not a principle of learning to count.

Question 5

B. Increases over time due to interaction of the genotype with the environment.

Question 6

C. It states that intelligence scores have increased at the bottom of the scale in the last 70 years.

Question 7

A. Phonological awareness, which leads to an increase in later reading skills.

Question 8

A. The storage of information in the long-term memory is enhanced.

Question 9

D. Episodic knowledge.

Question 10

B. Information from the sensory memory is transferred to the working memory.

Question 11

B. Organizing.

Question 12

A. Analytic abilities, practical abilities, and creative abilities are the three components of Sternberg's theory of successful intelligence.

Question 13

B. HOME does not account for the influence of parents' genes on the home environment and the child's intelligence.

Question 14

C. According to the environmental risk scale, the total number of risks is a better predictor of IQ than the presence of any single risk.

Question 15

D. According to Carroll's three-stratum theory of intelligence, general intelligence influences intermediate abilities, which influence specific processes.

What are the theories on social development in children? - ExamTest 9

Questions

Question 1

What is the right order of Freud's developmental stages?

1. Oral stage, anal stage, phallic stage, latency period, genital stage.
2. Anal stage, oral stage, phallic stage, latency period, genital stage.
3. Oral stage, anal stage, latency period, phallic stage, genital stage.
4. Oral stage, anal stage, genital stage, latency period, phallic stage.

Question 2

During which developmental stage does the Oedipus complex occur?

1. Anal stage.
2. Phallic stage.
3. Latency period.
4. Genital stage.

Question 3

Who is the founder of behaviorism?

1. Albert.
2. Erikson.
3. Skinner.
4. Watson.

Question 4

John takes a biscuit from the biscuit tin before eating, while his parents told him he wasn't allowed to. John feels guilty after eating the cookie. According to Freud ... is responsible for this.

1. The ego.
2. The superego.
3. The id.
4. The libido.

Question 5

A 23 month old toddler is sleeping badly. His mother takes him to a therapist. Which theory is best for the therapist to apply?

1. The bio-ecological model.
2. The psychoanalysis.
3. Eriksson's theory of psycho-social development.
4. The social learning theory.

Question 6

What are the similarities of the different learning theories?

1. The emphasis on continuous development, and emphasis on nurture.
2. The emphasis on continuous development, and the emphasis on nature.
3. The emphasis on the active child.
4. The emphasis on nature and nurture.

Question 7

China's one-child policy exemplified the link between which two systems of Bronfenbrenner's ecological model?

1. Micro system and meso system.
2. Macro system and meso system.
3. Exosystem and microsystem.
4. Macro system and micro system.

Question 8

Which of the following best descirbes a parenting style influenced by Watson's theories?

1. Rigid and strict.
2. Overprotective.
3. Permissive.
4. Child-centered.

Question 9

According to Skinner, everything we do in life is an operant response influenced by ... .

1. The immediate sociocultural context.
2. the outcomes of past behavior.
3. The behavior of peers.
4. Behavior modification.

Question 10

Social learning theory emphasizes ... as the primary mechanism(s) of development.

1. Observation and imitation.
2. Genetic encoding.
3. Reinforcement.
4. Social influences.

Question 11

Bandura's Bobo doll experiment demonstrated ... .

1. The pleasure principle.
2. Vicarious reinforcement.
3. Operant conditioning.
4. Basic trust versus mistrust.

Question 12

Though younger children realize that someone else can have a perspective different from theirs, it is not until adolescence that we are able to compare our perspective to a gerenalized other. This ability represents the fourth stage is Roger Selman's ... theory.

1. Psychosocial.
2. Reciprocal determinism.
3. Role-taking.
4. Self-socializations.

Question 13

Media use and exposure can impact an individual on every level of the bioecological model. Which of the following would represent an intervention at the mesosystem?

1. National policies directed at limiting access by young children to violent media.
2. The installation of educational video games within the classroom.
3. The development of increasingly effective security measures for digital devices.
4. Watching an R-rated movie.

Question 14

What is the term used to describe the study of behavior within an evolutionary context?

1. Ethology.
2. Biology.
3. Sociology.
4. Mesosystem theory.

Question 15

Of the four broad theoretical frameworks for social development presented in this chapter, which group places the most emphasis on the importance of the child's knowledge and beliefs?

1. Psychoanalytic theories.
2. Learning theories.
3. Social cognition theories.
4. Ecological theories.

Answers

Question 1

A. The right order is: oral stage, anal stage, phallic stage, latency period, genital stage.

Question 2

B. The Oedipus complex occurs during the phallic stae.

Question 3

D. Watson. Little Albert was his test subject. Erikson is the follower of Freud, Freud invented the psychoanalytic theory. Skinner invented the theory of operant conditioning.

Question 4

B. The superego.

Question 5

A. The bio-ecological model can be used to identify environmental factors.

Question 6

A. The emphasis on continuous development, and emphasis on nurture.

Question 7

D. Macrosystem and microsystem.

Question 8

A. A rigid and strict parenting style best describes the parenting style influenced by Watson.

Question 9

B. The outcomes of past behavior influences everything we do in life through operant conditioning.

Question 10

A. Observation and imitation are the primary mechanisms of development according to social learning theory.

Question 11

B. Vicarious reinforcement was demonstrated by Bandura's Bobo doll experiment.

Question 12

C. Roger Selman's role-taking theory.

Question 13

C. The development of increasingly effective security measures for digital devices is a measure that can be taken on the meso-system level of the bioecological model.

Question 14

A. This study is called ethology.

Question 15

C. Social cognition theories place the most emphasis on the importance of the child's knowledge and beliefs.

How does emotion development in children take place? - ExamTest 10

Questions

Question 1

Which theory is based on the idea of Darwin that emotions are innate?

1. The functionalist perspective
2. The dynamic systems theory.
3. The basis-affection system theory.
4. The discrete emotions theory.

Question 2

Which of the following statements is true?

1. Poor people experience as much depression as rich people.
2. The percentage of depression decreases when children reach puberty.

1. Only statement 1 is true.
2. Only statement 2 is true.
3. Both statements are true.
4. Both statements are false.

Question 3

What are two examples of self-aware emotions?

1. Shame and anger.
2. Fear and Anger.
3. Pride and shame.
4. Pride and joy.

Question 4

What is the first form of emotional regulation that children develop?

1. Looking away from a negative stimulus.
2. Crying during a negative stimulus
3. Separation anxiety from the primary caregiver.
4. Disgust.

Question 5

The first negative emotion you see in young babies is ...

1. Anger.
2. Sadness.
3. Fear.
4. First you only see general distress: differentiating between negative emotions is still too difficult.

Question 6

From what age can you see a social smile in babies?

1. In the first week after birth.
2. After about 3 weeks of age.
3. From about 6 weeks of age.
4. After 4 to 5 months.

Question 7

Which of the following statements best summarizes the findings by Mischel and his colleagues from their famous marshmallow test?

1. The ability to exhibit self-control early in life can predict success later in life.
2. The ability to experience and express emotion is a result of human evolution.
3. Individuals experience emotions in order to manage their relationship to their environment.
4. Infants across all cultures are born with the ability to express the six basic human emotions.

Question 8

Tom is walking down the street and suddenly encounters a dog that is crouched and growling. Tom begins to perspire, his breathing quickens, and his heart rate increases. This reaction is an example of which component of emotions?

1. Neural responses.
2. Physiological factors.
3. Subjective feelings.
4. The desire to take action.

Question 9

The notion that humans have evolvd to experience a basic set of emotions through adaptation to their surroundings is central to which theory?

1. Functionalist perspective theory.
2. The AFFEX approach.
3. Display rules theory.
4. Discrete emotions theory.

Question 10

How do self-conscious emotions differ from the set of basic emotions discussed in this chapter?

1. Self-conscious emotions are thought to be innate.
2. Self-conscious emotions tend to occur very early in infancy.
3. Self-conscious emotions develop after the child has acquired a sense of himself as separate from others.
4. Self-conscious emotions have a consistently negative effect on development.

Question 11

Based on your understanding of the chapter, how would a 12-month-old respond to a novel stimulus in a given situation if his or her parent expressed positive emotion?

1. The infant would be likely to stay near his or her parent.
2. The infant would be likely to move closer to the novel stimulus.
3. The infant would be likely to stay in between the parent and the novel stimulus.
4. The infant would be likely to show a fear response and avoid the novel stimulus.

Question 12

A decreased reliance on self-comforting behaviors, an increased ability to inhibit motor behavior, and an improved ability to distract oneself when distressed all result from developments in ... .

1. Emotional intelligence
2. Emotion regulation
3. Temperament
4. Social competence

Question 13

Twin studies conducted by Lemery-Chalfant and colleagues have led to which important conclusion regarding temperament?

1. Temperament is most strongly affected by environmental factors.
2. Temperament is completely determined by genetic factors.
3. Temperament is determined more by genes than by environment.
4. Genes and environment play equal roles in determining temperament.

Question 14

Two 6-year-old boys, Cal and Sam, accompany their class to the library. Sam grabs a book from the shelf and sits quietly to read. Cal is unable to sit still and ends up disrupting other children. The different reactions that these two boys have to this situation illustrate ... .

1. Emotion socialization.
2. Goodness of fit.
3. Personal preferences.
4. Differential susceptibility.

Question 15

Chronic high-level stress that is experienced without the mitigating benefits of support or treatment is referred to as ... stress.

1. Inherent.
2. Manageable.
3. ruminative.
4. Toxic.

Answers

Question 1

D. The discrete emotions theory states that there are some core emotions that are innate.

Question 2

D. Poor people experience more depression than rich people. The percentage of depression actually increases when children reach puberty.

Question 3

C. Pride and shame are examples of self-aware emotions.

Question 4

A. Looking away from a negative stimulus.

Question 5

D. First you only see general distress: differentiating between negative emotions is still too difficult.

Question 6

C. From the age of 6 weeks.

Question 7

A. The marshmallow test study found that the ability to exhibit self-control early in life can predict success later in life.

Question 8

B. Physiological factors.

Question 9

D. Discrete emotions theory.

Question 10

C. Self-conscious emotions develop after the child has acquired a sense of himself as separate from others.

Question 11

B. The 12-month-old would be likely to move closer to the novel stimulus.

Question 12

B. A decreased reliance on self-comforting behaviors, an increased ability to inhibit motor behavior, and an improved ability to distract oneself when distressed all result from developments in emotion regulation.

Question 13

D. Genes and environment play equal roles in determining temperament.

Question 14

B. The different reactions that these two boys have to this situation illustrate goodness of fit.

Question 15

D. Toxic stress.

What do attachment theories say about development? - ExamTest 11

Questions

Question 1

What is the third step in the attachment process according to Bowlby?

1. Reciprocal relationships.
2. Clear-cut attachment.
3. Pre attachment.
4. Attachment-in-the-making.

Question 2

Which attachment pattern does not originally belong to the three attachment patterns of Ainsworth?

1. Secure attachment.
2. Insecure ambivalent attachment.
3. Insecure disorganized attachment.
4. Insecure avoidant attachment.

Question 3

What is NOT characteristic of an insecure ambivalent child?

1. The child behaves very clingy.
2. The child calms down through the presence of a stranger.
3. The child is difficult to comfort when the mother returns after being separated from her.
4. The child is comforted just as easily by a stranger as by the mother after divorce from the mother.

Question 4

The attachment relationship of a child s is often related to the attachment relationship that his / her mother had with her mother. The mother used to have an autonomous attachment style. What will the child get?

1. A secure attachment style.
2. An insecure ambivalent attachment style
3. An insecure-avoidant attachment style
4. This cannot be said on the basis of this information.

Question 5

What is NOT an indication that a child has developed a self-image?

1. Recognizing itself in the mirror.
2. Comparing itself with peers.
3. Recognizing deviations from appearance when looking in the mirror.
4. Imitating other people's facial expressions.

Question 6

Read the following case carefully: "Rebecca reacts more positively to her mother than to other people. She smiles more often in the presence of her mother than in the presence of other people. She shows no fear of separation and is not actively looking for her mother when her mother is away for a while ".

What stage of the development of an attachment relationship is Rebecca at according to Bowlby?

1. Pre-attachment.
2. Attachment-in-the-making.
3. Clear-cut attachment.
4. Reciprocal relationships.

Question 7

Children raised in a parenting style are characterized by increased impulsivity, poor self-control, lower school performance and increased antisocial behavior.

1. Authoritative.
2. Dismissive-neglectful.
3. Permissive.
4. Authoritarian.

Question 8

Harlow's work with infant rhesus monkeys found that the monkeys spent more time with the cloth mothers that did not actually feed them than the wire mothers, that did feed them. What is the main implication of this finding?

1. The monkeys were not motivated by food.
2. The monkeys were drawn to food more than to physical comfort.
3. The monkeys were drawn to physical comfort more than to food.
4. The monkeys' choices were explained by behaviorism.

Question 9

Three attachment types were initially identified in research by Mary Ainsworth. Which attachment type was later added to categorize those that did not fit well into Ainsworth's initial three categories?

1. Securely attached.
2. Disorganized/disoriented.
3. Insecure/resistant.
4. Insecure/avoidant.

Question 10

Which of the following best describes a typical individual's experience with attachment?

1. Once a child develops an attachment style, that style remains consistent for all relationships in their lives.
2. Children are born with an internal working model of attachment, pre-programmed in their genes.
3. A child's attachment may vary from person to person.
4. Attachment is only relevant in strange situations.

Question 11

Studies have shown that the link between attachment security and genetic make-up ... .

1. Disappears by adulthood.
2. Can be differentially impacted by the quality of the child's environment.
3. Can be changed by altering the levels of oxytocin in the brain.
4. Is proof that genetic markers cause specific attachment security types.

Question 12

As children's cognitive abilities increase, their self-concepts shift from focusing on ... characteristics to ... qualities.

1. Psychological; physical.
2. Active; passive.
3. Physical; psychological.
4. Flattering; unflattering.

Question 13

Which of the following statements is not true about racial and ethnic identity during adolescence?

1. The more an adolescent identifies with his or her ethnic and racial identity, the lower his or her self-esteem.
2. Minority-group members can face challenges in adopting the values of their ethnic group or those of the dominant culture.
3. Because they may have had early experiences with discrimination, ethnic and racial minority adolescents may feel ambivalent about their own ethnic status.
4. Development of a bicultural identiity can lead to positive benefits for some minority youth and can lead to challenges for others.

Question 14

For sexual-minority youth, the process of first recognition is noted by ... .

1. Feelings of alienation resulting from the realization that they are different from others.
2. A preference for social interaction with other sexual minority individuals.
3. An individual's first experience with same-sex sexual activities.
4. An individual's initial disclosure about his/her sexual identity.

Question 15

According to James Marcia's theory of idenity development, which stage is noted by the exploration of identity status?

1. Identity diffusion.
2. Identity foreclosure.
3. Confusion.
4. Moratorium.

Answers

Question 1

B. The correct order is: pre attachment, attachment-in-the-making, clear-cut attachment, reciprocal relationships.

Question 2

C. This attachment pattern was added, because a small percentage of children did not fit well into any of the three categories.

Question 3

B. The child calms down through the presence of a stranger.

Question 4

A. A secure attachment.

Question 5

D. Imitating other people's facial expressions is not an indication of the development of a self-concept.

Question 6

B. Rebecca is in the stage of attachment-in-the-making according to Bowlby's theory.

Question 7

C. Permissive parenting style.

Question 8

C. The monkeys were drawn to physical comfort more than to food.

Question 9

B. The disorganized/disoriented category was added later on.

Question 10

C. A child's attachment may vary from person to person.

Question 11

B. Studies have shown that the link between attachment security and genetic make-up can be differentially impacted by the quality of the child's environment.

Question 12

C. As children's cognitive abilities increase, their self-concepts shift from focusing on physical characteristics to psychological qualities.

Question 13

A. The more an adolescent identifies with his or her ethnic and racial identity, the lower his or her self-esteem.

Question 14

A. For sexual-minority youth, the process of first recognition is noted by feelings of alienation resulting from the realization that they are different from others.

Question 15

D. Moratorium.

What is the influence of family on the development of children? - ExamTest 12

Questions

Question 1

Which parenting style is described by the following? Parents are cold, nonresponsive and high in demandingness. They are oriented toward control and expect their children to comply without question or explanation.

1. Authoritative parenting.
2. Authoritarian parenting.
3. Permissive parenting.
4. Uninvolved parenting.

Question 2

The process through which children acquire the values, knowledge, and behaviors that are regarded as appropriate in their culture is known as ...

1. Parenting style.
2. Socialization.
3. Behaviorism.
4. Discipline.

Question 3

A recent trend in famiy structure in the United states is the increasing ages of first-time parents. Which of the following is not true of these older parents compared with younger parents?

1. Older parents tend to be more highly educated.
2. Older parents tend to earn higher income.
3. Older parents tend to use a harsher parenting style.
4. Older parents are less likely to get divorced within 10 years of having a child.

Question 4

Recent research has shown which of the following to be true of children of same-sex parents, compared with children of heterosexual parents?

1. They exhibit more mental health disorders.
2. They tend to perform better socially and academically.
3. They are similar in their sexual oreintation and degree of gender-typed behavior.
4. They report higher levels of parental aggression in adolescence.

Question 5

Which of the following statements is not true of divorce?

1. Young children tend to react more negatively to a parent's remarriage than do young adolescents.
2. For children in high-conflict families, divorce may increase the likelihood of positive outcomes for their adjustment.
3. Joint custody is the most common arrangement for parents and children after divorce.
4. Most children do not suffer significant, enduring problems as a result of their parent's divorce.

Question 6

The process through which children acquire the values, knowledge, and behaviors that are regarded as appropriate in their culture is known as ... .

1. Parenting style.
2. Socialization.
3. Behaviorism.
4. Joint attention.

Question 7

Which of the following factors has not been shown to influence children's adjustment in stepfamilies?

1. The amount of conflict between the custodial parent and the noncustodial parent.
2. The relationship between the noncustodial parent and the stepparent.
3. The genders of the child and stepparent.
4. The age difference between the biological parent and stepparent.

Question 8

Which of the following descriptions best fits the definition of "other-oriented induction"?

1. After a toddler has tkaen a toy from his friend, the toddler's mother scolds him and makes him apologize.
2. A father spanks his toddler after that toddler has tkaen a toy from her friend.
3. A mother puts her toddler in a time-out after he has taken a toy from his friend.
4. A father explains to his todddler that by taking a toy from her friend, she has hurt her friend's feelings.

Question 9

Internalization is best described as ...

1. The feelings of guilt that a child may experience after his or her parents divorce.
2. The process by which parent-child interactions reinforce and perpetuate the parent's and child's behavior.
3. The process through which a child learns and accepts a desired behavior as a result of appropriate discipline.
4. The negative impact harsh punishment can ahve on a child's sense of self-esteem.

Question 10

Which of the following statements is an accurate description of punishment?

1. Punishment is an effective form of discipline.
2. Punishment, although more harsh than other forms of discipline, can teach the child how to behave.
3. Punishments such as yelling and revoking privileges have been found to be successful at encouraging internalization.
4. Punishments, when mild, provide minimally sufficient pressure for internalization.

Question 11

Eric and his friend are playing a game that could become dangerous. Eric's father tells them to stop. Eric pleads with him to let them continue. His father firmly restates his refusal and explains why he thinks their game is dangerous. He then suggests some alternative activities. Eric's father is displaying which parenting style?

1. Permissive.
2. Authoritarian.
3. Authoritative.
4. Friendly.

Question 12

Which of the following is not an area in which mothers and fathers tend to differ in interaction with their children?

1. The type of play they tend to engage in with their children.
2. The amount of time they spend with their children.
3. The effect that their parenting style has on their children's mental health.
4. The amount of physical care and emotional support they provide for their children.

Question 13

Siblings get along best if ...

1. Their parents also get along.
2. Their parents treat each child similarly.
3. They live in collectivist community.
4. All of the above.

Question 14

Which of the following statement is true of the potential effect of socioeconomic context on child development?

1. Poverty has little impact on children's academic achievement.
2. Children living in high-income families tend to show lower rates of drug use, delinquency, and mental health problems than their low-income peers.
3. Living in poverty has negative effects on multiple domains of development.
4. Maternal employment tends to significantly diminish the quality of mothers' interactions with their children.

Question 15

Which of the following has not been found to influence the positive or negative effects of childcare on a child's development?

1. A number of hours per day the child spends in childcare.
2. Type of relationship the child has with his or her mother.
3. Quality of childcare facility.
4. Number of siblings the child has.

Answers

Question 1

B. The authoritarian parenting style is characterized by low warmth and high control.

Question 2

B. This process is called socialization.

Question 3

C. Older parents do not tend to use a harsher parenting style than younger parents.

Question 4

C. They are similar in their sexual orientation and degree of gender-typed behavior.

Question 5

A. Young children tend to react more negatively to a parent's remarriage than do young adolescents.

Question 6

B. Socialization.

Question 7

D. The age difference between the biological parent and stepparent does not influence children's adjustment in stepfamilies.

Question 8

D. A father explains to his toddler that by taking a toy from her friend, she has hurt her friend's feelings.

Question 9

C. Internalization is best described as the process through which a child learns and accepts a desired behavior as a result of appropriate discipline.

Question 10

D. Punishments, when mild, provide minimally sufficient pressure for internalization.

Question 11

C. Eric's father displays an authoritative parenting style.

Question 12

C. The effect that their parenting style has on their children's mental health is not an area in which mothers and fathers tend to differ in interactions with their children.

Question 13

D. Siblings tend to get along best if their parents also get along, their parents treat each child similarly, and they live in a collectivist community.

Question 14

C. Living in poverty has negative effects on multiple domains of development.

Question 15

D. The number of siblings the child has not been found to influence the positive or negative effects of childcare on a child's development.

What is the influence of peers on the development of a child? - ExamTest 13

Questions

Question 1

From which of the following we cannot notice that two young children are friends?

1. They defend each other.
2. They can verbally tell who their friends are.
3. They will call for help when their friend is upset.
4. They prefer to play with their friends than with nonfriends.

Question 2

Which term is described by the following? Peer groups that children voluntarily form or join themselves, usually of the same sex and race.

1. A clique.
2. A crowd.
3. A gang.
4. A mob.

Question 3

Which of the following is not a sociometric status?

1. Rejected children.
2. Average children.
3. Bullied children.
4. Neglected children.

Question 4

What's true about bullied children?

1. Friends can be a buffer when experiencing unpleasant events.
2. They are often aggressive.
3. They often have insensitive parents.
4. They often have a controversial sociometric status.

Question 5

What is NOT a bidirectional relationship?

1. Someone who is bullied often has few friends.
2. Someone who is 4 years old is aggressive. That is why he is also aggressive when he is 8 years old. That is why he is also aggressive when he is 12 years old.
3. Someone who is depressed does not sleep well.
4. Someone who experiences conflict at home often experiences conflict at school as well.

Question 6

If you have always rejected in your childhood, you are more likely to develop ...

1. Internalizing problems and externalizing problems.
2. Depression.
3. Internalizing problems and social problems.
4. Externalizing problems and social problems.

Question 7

Compared to adolescents, young primary school children view friendships more in terms of:

1. Sharing the same activities.
2. Sharing the same attitude.
3. Sharing the same ideas.
4. Sharing personal information.

Question 8

The ten-year-old Thomas is social, good at sports, and has a great sense of humor, but he is also aggressive and sometimes disruptive. His classmates see him as conceited. When sociometric status is mapped, Thomas would likely be categorized as:

1. Ignored.
2. Controversial.
3. Average.
4. Ignored.

Question 9

Friendships emerge in early childhood as children become more capable of cooperation and coordinated interactions, and as they learn to trust those individuals whom they consider to be friends. Which of the following statements is not true of these early childhood friendships?

1. Preschool friends are more likely than nonfriends to resume interactions with each other following a conflict.
2. Preschool friends quarrel less with each other than they do with nonfriends.
3. Preschool friends tend to resolve conflicts in an equitable manner.
4. Pretend play occurs more often between friends than nonfriends.

Question 10

Tyler thinks of himself as socially awkward. He has a few close firends, but tends to be shy around most peers and adults. He is more comfortable on social media, where he tends to express his emotions more openly. Tyler's experience supports which perspective on the impact of social media on development?

1. The rich-get-richer hypothesis.
2. The sociometric status perspective.
3. The social-compensation hypothesis.
4. Selman's perspective.

Question 11

What does the term deviancy training refer to?

1. An intervention to discourage aggressive tendencies by encouraging supportive peer interactions.
2. Parental interactions that have the unintended consequence of increasing risky and aggressive behaviors in children.
3. The process through which antisocial youth reinforce aggressive and deviant tendencies in one another.
4. A school-based intervention to provide methods for teachers and other adults to maintain order among at-risk children.

Question 12

According to research, which of the following is true of relationships between girls in middle childhood and adolescence compared with those of boys of the same ages?

1. Girls' friendships tend to last longer than those of boys.
2. Girls are less likely than boys to dicuss their problems and negative thoughts.
3. Girls are more likely than boys to desire closeness and to worry about abondonment from their friends.
4. Girls tend to engage in more conflict with their best friend than do boys.

Question 13

Which of the following statements about cyberbullying is true?

1. Cyberbullying is more common in classrooms where students are accepting of bullying in general.
2. There are more children who say they are perpetrators of cyberbullying than children who say they are victims of cyberbullying.
3. Gay, lesbian, and bisexual students are twice as likely as heterosexual students to be cyberbullied.
4. There are more children who say they are victims of cyberbullying than chidlren who say they are perpetrators of cyberbullying.

Question 14

Alex tend to be cooperative and sociable but also prone to outburst and can be disruptive in class. Alex is well liked by some classmates but disliked by others. Which of the following best describes Alex's sociometric status?

1. Confused.
2. Aggressive-rejected.
3. Controversial.
4. Popular-unpopular.

Question 15

Friendships in adolescence tend to be more ... .

1. Stable.
2. Co-dependent.
3. Harmful.
4. Exclusive.

Answers

Question 1

B. Young children cannot verbally tell who their friends are.

Question 2

A. Crowds are groups of people who have similar stereotyped reputations, like the jocks, freaks or geeks. A gang is a loosely organized group of adolescents or young adults who identify as a group and often engage in illegal activities.

Question 3

C. Other possible sociometric statuses are popular children and controversial children.

Question 4

A. Friends can be a buffer when experiencing unpleasant events.

Question 5

B. Someone who is 4 years old is aggressive. That is why he is also aggressive when he is 8 years old. That is why he is also aggressive when he is 12 years old. This is a one-way relationship.

Question 6

A. There is an increased risk for internalizing and externalizing problems.

Question 7

A. Sharing the same activities.

Question 8

B. Controversial.

Question 9

B. Preschool friends quarrel less with each other than they do with nonfriends.

Question 10

C. The social-compensation hypothesis states that those who perceive their offline social networks to have undesirable characteristics seek to compensate by developing more extensive online social networks.

Question 11

C. Deviancy training is the process through which antisocial youth reinforce aggressive and deviant tendencies in one another.

Question 12

C. Girls are more likely than boys to desire closeness and to worry about abondonment from their friends.

Question 13

B. There are more children who say they are perpetrators of cyberbullying than children who say they are victims of cyberbullying.

Question 14

C. Controversial.

Question 15

D. Exclusive.

How does moral development take place? - ExamTests 14

Questions

Question 1

According to Piaget, there are two stages of development in children's moral reasoning, with a transitional period between them. During which ages does this transitional period occur?

1. From 2 – 4 years old.
2. From 4 – 7 years old.
3. From 7 – 10 years old.
4. From 10 – 12 years old.

Question 2

Which stage does not belong to Kohlberg's theory of moral judgement?

1. Preconventional moral reasoning.
2. Conventional moral reasoning.
3. Postconventional moral reasoning.
4. Complete moral reasoning.

Question 3

Kohlberg based his stages of morality on ...

1. Reasons behind moral decisions.
2. The stages of prosocial development.
3. The results of his studies of prosocial dilemmas.
4. Evidence that peers have a critical impact on children's moral development.

Question 4

What is the difference between a 2-year-old child and a child attending primary school in terms of aggression?

1. Aggression has increased overall.
2. Aggression has diminished overall.
3. Physical aggression decreases and verbal aggression increases.
4. Verbal aggression decreases and physical aggression increases.

Question 5

Katie accidentally breaks four cups as she helps ahar father set the table. Laura accidentally breaks a cup while secretly picking up a cookie from the cookie jar. Rose breaks two cups while fighting with her brother.

Which child deserves the highest punishment according to a child in Piaget's pre-operational stage of development?

1. Katie
2. Laura.
3. Rose.
4. They are all seen as equally guilty.

Question 6

Which of the following sentences is an example of instrumental aggression?

1. Tony pushes Joyce away so that he can get to the swing first.
2. Tony makes sure that Joyce is not allowed to participate in the other children's play.
3. Tony tells Joyce that he would like to have the toys she has now.
4. Tony destroys Joyce's sand castle because he's angry.

Question 7

According to Piaget, which of the following factors is most influential in the development of children's moral reasoning?

1. Adult influence.
2. Interactions with peers.
3. Societal norms.
4. Heredity.

Question 8

Sarah is angry and wants to break her mother's favorite vase. However, she doesn't want to get in trouble for her actions, so she decides to punch a pillow instead. According to Kohlberg's hierarchy, Sarah's behavior is typical of which level of moral development?

1. Preconventional
2. Developmental.
3. Conventional.
4. Postconventional.

Question 9

According to social domain theory, at approximately what age do children begin to believe that it is more important to follow moral rules than societal conventions?

1. 12 months.
2. 6 years.
3. 12 years.
4. 3 years.

Question 10

Prosocial behavior is best defined as ...

1. Behavior based on personal benefit.
2. Voluntary behavior intended to benefit another.
3. Actions that contribute to society as a whole.
4. Behavior intended to win approval.

Question 11

Children develop conscience ...

1. Through identification with the same-gender parent, at about age 4 to 6.
2. Slowly over time, and this development is affected by parental disciplinary practices.
3. In a discontinuous process.
4. In a standard sequence, regardless of parental practices.

Question 12

Jaden is playing with a toy car. Sam comes over and takes it from her, which makes Jaden sad. Omar watches this happen and feels sad as well. Omar is displaying what kind of emotional response?

1. Sympathy.
2. Prosocial behavior.
3. Altruism.
4. Empathy.

Question 13

Which of the following has been shown to influence the development of prosocial tendencies?

1. Parental discipline style.
2. Genetic factors.
3. Temperament.
4. All of the above.

Question 14

Severe antisocial and aggressive behaviors, such as cruelty to animals and patterns of bullying, are examples of ...

1. Conduct disorder
2. Reactive aggression.
3. Oppositional defiant disorder.
4. Negative youth development.

Question 15

The youth mentoring program Big Brothers Big Sisters for at-risk youth is an example of ...

1. A secondary prevention program.
2. An aggression intervention.
3. A positive youth development program.
4. Both A and C.

Answers

Question 1

C. According to Piaget, the transitional period takes place from 7-10 years old.

Question 2

D. Kohlberg did not distinguish the stage of complete moral reasoning in his theory.

Question 3

A. Reasons for moral decisions.

Question 4

C. Physical aggression decreases and verbal aggression increases.

Question 5

A. Katie.

Question 6

A. Tony pushes Joyce away so that he can get to the swing first.

Question 7

B. Interactions with peers.

Question 8

A. Preconventional level of moral development.

Question 9

D. 3 years.

Question 10

B. Prosocial behavior is best defined as voluntary behavior intended to benefit another.

Question 11

B. Children develop a conscience slowly over time, and this development is affected by parental disciplinary practices.

Question 12

D. Empathy.

Question 13

D. Parental discipline style as well as genetic factors and temperament influence the development of prosocial tendencies.

Question 14

A. Severe antisocial and aggressive behaviors, such as cruelty to animals and patterns of bullying, are examples of conduct disorder.

Question 15

D. The youth mentoring progrma Big Brothers Big Sisters for at-risk youth is an example of a secondary prevention program as well as a positive youth development program.

How does gender development take place? - ExamTest 15

Questions

Question 1

Which term is described? The tendency to affirm connection with others through being emotionally open, empathetic, or supportive.

1. Assertion.
2. Collaboration.
3. Affiliation.
4. Empathy.

Question 2

Which theory that focuses on biological differences regarding gender emphasizes the physical differences between men and women that can have both behavioral and social consequences?

1. Evolutionary psychology theory.
2. Biosocial theory.
3. Neuroscience theory.
4. Social science theory.

Question 3

Which theory on gender development proposes that children enact gender-typed behaviors as soon as they can label other people's and their own gender?

1. Cognitive developmental theory.
2. Social identity theory.
3. Social cognitive theory.
4. Gender schema theory.

Question 4

The gender similarities hypothesis emphasizes that in areas of cognitive behaviors and social abilities ...

1. All measurable differences between the sexes are trivial.
2. Boys and girls develop on parallel but unequal tracks.
3. Similarities between boys and girls far outweigh differences.
4. Differences between boys and girls outweigh similarities.

Question 5

Rose is a 9-year-old girl. She strongly prefers wearing t-shirts and jeans to dresses and other "girly" clothes. She loves sports and hates playing with dolls. Rose's preferences are an example of ... .

1. Gender-role intensification.
2. Cross-gender-typed behavior.
3. Cisgender modeling.
4. Gender segregation.

Question 6

Gender typing refers to ...

1. The identification of an individual based on sex chromosomes.
2. An individual's personal identification as male, female, or neither.
3. The process of gender socialization that occurs during development.
4. The genetic forces that determine an individual's sex during prenatal development.

Question 7

The use of gendered nouns and pronouns, the association of certain hair styles with specific genders, and the gender differentiation of specific colors are all examples of which of the following?

1. The psychological salience of gender.
2. Gender identity.
3. Organizational influences.
4. Gender-role intensification.

Question 8

Finnegan, a 5-year-old boy, is given a choice between playing with a toy truck or a ballerina doll. He chooses the truck, because he has learned that boys play with trucks and girls play with dolls. This episode illustrates the child's ... .

1. Interest filter.
2. Intersectionality.
3. Gender schema filter.
4. Gender segregation.

Question 9

Exposure to high levels of prenatal androgens in genetic females may influence the development of their nervous system in such a way that result in certain cross-gender-typed behaviors. This example demonstrates the effect of ... .

1. Activating influences.
2. Cisgender disposition.
3. Organizing influences.
4. Self-socialization.

Question 10

Which of the following statements is most representative of Kohlberg's conception of the gender constancy stage?

1. "Girls can have babies, boys cannot."
2. "I am a boy today, but could be a girl tomorrow."
3. "Even if I cut my hair and dress like a boy, I am a girl."
4. "I will always be a girl."

Question 11

The complex web of inlfuences - including gender, sexual orientation, race, social class, and other group affiliations - that shape an individual's social identity and experiences is known as ... .

1. Gender schema.
2. In-group assimilation.
3. Intersectionality.
4. Collaboration.

Question 12

Alex is a 6-year-old boy. His father disapproves when Alex plays with his sister's dolls but happily engages with him when Alex plays with trucks. This scenario is an example of the influence of ... in shaping Alex's gender identity.

1. Observational learning.
2. Collaboration.
3. Enactive experience.
4. Intersectionality.

Question 13

Gender segregation refers to ...

1. The tendency of young children to associate with same-gender peers and aovid other-gender peers.
2. The differences between the sexes in cognitive and behavioral tendencies.
3. The tendency for an individual to engage in gender-typed behaviors.
4. The tendency of an individual to retain information that is gender schema-consistent.

Question 14

Some people believe that men are supposed to protect women. They may also believe that men and women possess complementary traits, such as men are leaders and protectors and women are submissive and nurturing. These attitudes reflect ... .

1. Gender constancy.
2. The interest filter.
3. Benevolent sexism.
4. Hostile sexism.

Question 15

Children tend to be motivated to ahcieve in those areas that they find personally valuable and in which they expect to succeed. This tendency is described by which of the following models?

1. Gender self-socialization model.
2. Developmental intergroup model.
3. Expectancy-value model of achievement.
4. Affiliation-assertion model.

Answers

Question 1

C. Affiliation is the tendency to affirm connection with others through being emotionally open, empathetic, or supportive. Assertiveness is the tendency to take action yourself through competitive, independent, or aggressive behavior. Collaboration is the mixing of these two forms of behavior: assertiveness and affiliation.

Question 2

B. The biosocial theory focuses on biological differences regarding gender, emphasizing the physical differences between men and women that can have both behavioral and social consequences. Evolutionary psychological theory states that gender differences arise from the reproductive benefits. Neuroscience theory focuses on how hormones, brain structure and brain functions are related to gender differences in development.

Question 3

D. The gender schema theory. Cognitive development theory states that understanding gender involves three phases: gender identity, gender stability, and gender constancy. Social identity theory states that gender is the most central social identity in life and focuses on the influence of members of a group on self-concepts and behavior / interactions with others. Social cognitive theory states that one learns through education, passive experiences and modeling.

Question 4

C. The gender similarities hypothesis emphasizes that in areas of cognitive behaviors and social abilities similarities between boys and girls far outweigh differences.

Question 5

B. Rose's preferences are an example of cross-gender-typed behavior.

Question 6

C. Gender typing refers to the process of gender socialization that occurs during development.

Question 7

A. The psychological salience of gender.

Question 8

C. The episode illustrates the child's gender schema filter.

Question 9

C. This example demonstrates the effect of organizing influences.

Question 10

C. "Even if I cut my hair and dress like a boy, I am a girl."

Question 11

C. The complex web of inlfuences - including gender, sexual orientation, race, social class, and other group affiliations - that shape an individual's social identity and experiences is known as intersectionality.

Question 12

C. This scenario is an example of the influence of enactive experience in shaping Alex's gender identity.

Question 13

A. Gender segregation refers to the tendency of young children to associate with same-gender peers and avoid other-gender peers.

Question 14

C. This is an illustration of benevolent sexism.

Question 15

C. Expectancy-value model of achievement.

What conclusions can we draw from the chapters of this book? - ExamTest 16

Questions

Question 1

When do genetically influenced characteristics become evident?

1. Directly after birth.
2. When children are toddlers.
3. During preschool.
4. During middle childhood, adolescence or adulthood.

Question 2

Fill in:

When children encounter an unfamiliar stimulus, they accommodate / assimilate it to more familiar stimuli. At the same time, their understanding accommodates / assimilates to the experience, so that when they next encounter the unfamiliar stimulus will feel less strange.

1. Accommodate, accommodates.
2. Assimilate, assimilates.
3. Accommodate, assimilates.
4. Assimilate, accommodates.

Question 3

Which of the following is true?

1. Children from poorer families are more often secure attached.
2. Depression is more common among poor families.

1. Only statement 1 is true.
2. Only statement 2 is true.
3. Both statements are true.
4. Both statements are false.

Question 4

Which of the following statement accurately descirbes the interaction of nature and nurture?

1. Nature does its work before birth, and nurture takes over only after birth.
2. Nature's influence continues through infancy before giving way to the influence of nurture.
3. Nature and nurture begin interacting on the fetus in the womb, and both continue to shape the individual's development.
4. The role that both nature and nurture play in development is often overstated.

Question 5

Which of the following is an example of the crucial role that timing plays in the potential impact of a teratogen?

1. The diet of a pregnant mother will influence taste preferences that the fetus will exhibit after birth.
2. By age 12 months, infants lose the ability to hear the difference between similar sounds that they do not encounter on a regular basis.
3. A virus will cause damage to the development of a fetus if contracted by the pregnant mother at specific sensitive times during pregnancy.
4. It is more difficult for children older than 11 or 12 years of age to gain competence in a new language than it is for younger children.

Question 6

The emerging fiel of epigenetics has helped to explain the ways in which a child's environment can influence gene expression. Which of the following is an example of this interaction?

1. Children with certain types of brain damage will perform on par with other children on IQ tests up to a certain age but will fall behind after that point.
2. It is more difficult for children older than 11 or 12 years of age to gain competence in a new language than it is for younger children.
3. A child who loses capability in one sense, such as sight, will often compensate with enhanced ability in another sense.
4. The amount of stress that a mother experiences during her child's infancy can affect that child's ability to regulate reaction to stress later in life.

Question 7

Looking preferences, self-initiated activities, self-socialization, and even the manner in which infants react to their parents are all examples of ...

1. The active role children play in their development.
2. The greater influence that nurture plays compared with nature in child development.
3. The ways in which development is discontinuous.
4. The ways in which the sociocultural context shapes development.

Question 8

Which of the following is an example of the theme of the active child?

1. The stability of IQ scores on average tends to increase with age.
2. Stressful maternal experiences, such as a periodic shortage of food at certain points during pregnancy, will influence the future physical development of the child.
3. Children who exhibit preoperational reasoning in some contexts may also exhibit concrete operational reasoning in others.
4. Children who are better able to regulate their emotions tend to be more socially competent and, therefore, elicit more positive reactions from other people than those who are less skilled at emotion regulation.

Question 9

Piaget's theory of cognitive development, Freud's theory of psychosexual development, and Erikson's theory of psychosocial development are all examples of ...

1. Social learning theory.
2. The stage approach to development.
3. Theories based on an empiricist perspective of development.
4. Theories based on the nativist approach to child development.

Question 10

An infant's attachment to his or her mother will more reliably predict that child's long-term security if there are no significant disruptions in the home environment. This example illustrates ...

1. The degree to which genetic influence on individual differences tends to decrease over time.
2. How continuity in individual differences is influenced by continuity in the environment.
3. The manner in which sociocultural differences exert influence on cognitive development.
4. The role of domain-specific learning mechanisms in child development.

Question 11

Which of the following statements accurately expresses a key understanding regarding the continuity and discontinuity of development?

1. Child psychologists today generally believe that, for the vast majority of traits, development occurs in a discontinuous manner.
2. Very few individual differences in psychological properties show stability over time.
3. Contrary to the theories by early behavioral psychologists like Piaget and Erikson, developmental processes rarely show a great deal of continuity.
4. The apparent continuity or discontinuity of a given developmental trait depends on the timescale on which it is considered.

Question 12

Before writing an essay, a child first considers what readers already know about the topic. Which of the four general information-processing mechanisms is illustrated by this example?

1. Strategy formation.
2. Basic processes.
3. Metacognition.
4. Content knowledge.

Question 13

Which of the following statements is not true of the development of a child's cognitive abilities?

1. A child's content knowledge in a given area can outweigh an adult's general intellectual ability.
2. Statistical learning emerges in middle childhood, after the child has begun to understand basic mathematical properties.
3. Understanding basic causal relationships allows children to infer explanations for a wide variety of observations.
4. Knowing multiple strategies for achieving goals helps children adapt to different problems and situations they will face.

Question 14

Which of the following is not a reason why demographic variables such as gender, race, ethnicity, and socioeconomic status are particularly useful to child-development researchers?

1. Each of these variables relates directly to a wide variety of other individual differences.
2. These variables tend to remain stable over time.
3. These variables have been shown to reliably predict some future outcomes.
4. These variables tend to be unaffected by environmental factors.

Question 15

Habituation is a learning process in which a child becomes familiar with a repeated stimulus. This process can motivate the child to seek out new stimulation. Besides illustrating the role of behavioral mechanisms in a child's development, this example also demonstrates which other theme of child development?

1. The sociocultural context of an individual's development.
2. The role of the active child.
3. The discontinuity of change over time.
4. The influence of nature over nurture.

Answers

Question 1

D. The interaction between nature and nurture is important here.

Question 2

D. Assimilate, assimilates.

Question 3

B. Children from poorer families often are insecurely attached.

Question 4

C. Nature and nurture begin interacting on the fetus in the womb, and both continue to shape the individual's development.

Question 5

C. A virus will cause damage to the development of a fetus if contracted by the pregnant mother at specific sensitive times during pregnancy.

Question 6

D. The amount of stress that a mother experiences during her child's infancy can affect that child's ability to regulate reaction to stress later in life.

Question 7

A. Looking preferences, self-initiated activities, self-socialization, and even the manner in which infants react to their parents are all examples of the active role children play in their development.

Question 8

D. Children who are better able to regulate their emotions tend to be more socially competent and, therefore, elicit more positive reactions from other people than those who are less skilled at emotion regulation.

Question 9

B. The stage approach to development.

Question 10

B. This example illustrates how continuity in individual differences is influenced by continuity in the environment.

Question 11

D. The apparent continuity or discontinuity of a given developmental trait depends on the timescale on which it is considered.

Question 12

C. The information processing mechanisms that is illustrated in this example is metacognition.

Question 13

B. Statistical learning emerges in middle childhood, after the child has begun to understand basic mathematical properties.

Question 14

D. These variables tend to be unaffected by environmental factors.

Question 15

B. This example also demonstrates the role of the active child in its' own development.