1.

The corrected item-total correlation indicates

a.

how valid an item is.

b.

how reliable an item is.

c.

how difficult an item is.

d.

how strongly an item discriminates between persons.@

2.

A psychologist has the transformed scores of six clinical patients. The (not ordered) transformed scores are 181, 111, 207, 191, 205, 288. Which candidate has a percentile rank of 33? The candidate with a score of

a.

191@

b.

207

c.

288

d.

302

Answer: ordered 111 181 191 205 207 288; for 191 it applies 2/6 * 100 = 33

3.

In factor analysis, the Kaiser’s criterion often leads to

a.

the maximum number of factors.

b.

uninterpretable factors.

c.

an underestimation of extracted factors.

d.

an overestimation of extracted factors.@

4.

Which statement is true?

a.

The base-rate often equals .50.

b.

When the base-rate is .90 it is difficult to show that the test is useful in identifying individuals in the target group.@

c.

The base-rate is the number of persons selected through a test.

d.

The base-rate is dependent on the reliability of the test.

Note: We did not discuss this during the lectures, but see the book!

Base rate = the rate at which something occurs in the population, e.g., successful students without selection of students, if this base rate is high, testing is not useful

5.

Which statement is true?

a.

The factor score equals the unweighted sum of item scores or subtest scores.

b.

In classical test theory it applies that T = O / E.

c.

Often item-total correlations higher than .7 are found in intelligence testing.

d.

The item characteristic curve plays an important role in item response theory.@

6.

A T score scale is standardized to have

a.

a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of approximately 2

b.

a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1.

c.

a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10.@

d.

none of the three options mentioned above.

7. A test consists of 30 items and has a reliability of r = .80. A researcher adds 10 items to the test, what is the reliability of the new test?

a.

.64.

b.

.84.@

c.

.89.

d.

.92.

Thus: 40/30 (.80) : 1+(40/30-1).80 = 1.066 : 1.266 = 0.84

8.

The Piers Harris Test is designed to measure

a.

intelligence for children.

b.

self concept for children.@

c.

personality for children.

d.

none of the three options mentioned above.

9.

Which statement is true?

a.

PCA is a confirmative technique to investigate the construct validity of a test.

b.

Oblique rotation is used when we assume that the factors are uncorrelated.

c.

Ipsative score are often used in intelligence testing.

d.

None of the three options mentioned above.@

10.

This cartoon (“You’re kidding! You count S.A.T.”) makes fun of

a.

educational testing.@

b.

typical performance testing.

c.

intelligence testing.

d.

military testing.

11.

The method of item analysis that investigates the correlation between performance on an item (correct or incorrect) and total test score is

a.

the extreme group method.

b.

the information function.

c.

the point-biserial method.@

d.

the item characteristic method.

12.

In the table above, the item variances are given for three items. The total score variance for the sum of these three items equals 2.20. Assume that we calculate coefficient alpha for these three items. Coefficient alpha then equals

a.

.65

b.

.70

c.

.75@

d.

.80

13.

Measurement precision as a function of the trait level is specified in

a.

item response theory.@

b.

classical test theory.

c.

criterion referenced testing.

d.

test linking procedures.

14.

Consider the Figure above. Assume that we would like to distinguish persons with theta values between +4 and +6. Which item(s) is (are) suited to do this?

a.

Item 40.

b.

Item 352.

c.

Both items 40 and item 352.

d.

None of the two items mentioned above.@

Note: between theta = +4 and theta + 6 none of the items have a steep ICC

15.

The index scores of the WAIS-IV are

a.

verbal IQ, nonverbal IQ, performance IQ.

b.

verbal IQ, nonverbal IQ, full scale IQ.

c.

verbal comprehension, perceptual reasoning, working memory, visual reasoning.

d.

verbal comprehension, perceptual reasoning, working memory, processing speed.@

16.

Sternberg Triarchic Theory has three subcategories:

a.

Experiential, contextual, and intentional.

b.

Componential, experiential, and creational.

c.

Componential, experiential, and contextual.@

d.

Experiential, contextual, and “wisdom”.

17.

Which statement is true?

a.

Spearman proposed the theory of multiple-factor theory.

b.

Thurstone proposed the theory that a general factor underlies intelligent behavior.

c.

Wechsler emphasized that intelligence involved more than intellectual ability. @

d.

In the Wechsler scales mental and chronological age play an important role.

18.

In the current version of the Stanford-Binet scale (SB5), the test begins with a routing test to estimate

a.

the time needed to administer the test.

b.

the appropriate level of other tests to administer.@

c.

the ceiling level of the subtests.

d.

the floor effect of the subtests.

19.

Digit symbol-coding in the WAIS IV measures

a.

verbal comprehension.

b.

perceptual organization.

c.

working memory.

d.

processing speed.@

20.

One method to investigate internal structure validity is

a.

factor analysis.@

b.

verbal-performance comparisons.

c.

pattern analysis.

d.

deviation analysis.

21.

SupS A psychologist selects the 20% best candidates for a job using reliable and valid intelligent test scores. To validate her procedure she correlates the scores on this intelligent test with job performance of these candidates’ scores a year later. She finds low correlations between the intelligent test scores and the valid job performance scores. One explanation of this low validity may be

a.

unreliability of the predictor test scores.

b.

unreliability of the criterion scores.

c.

restriction in range.@

d.

low internal structure validity of both the predictor and criterion scores.

22.

In the context of the Rorschach test, the location code Dd refers to

a.

common detail.

b.

unusual detail.@

c.

diverse detail.

d.

developmental detail.

23.

Which statement is true about the TAT?

a.

The TAT originated in the work by Freud.

b.

Exner systematized the scoring and the administration of the TAT.

c.

The TAT is the most widely used projective technique.

d.

Usage of the TAT is becoming less popular.@

24.

The scores of an admission test correlates r =.49 with mean grades in the first year in a sample of college students. Which statement is true?

a.

This is high because it is not easy to obtain higher validity coefficients in this context. @

b.

This is low because higher validity coefficients are often found.

c.

This is low because the maximum validity equals one.

d.

None of the three statements above is correct.

25.

The Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank measures

a.

nonverbal intelligence.

b.

potential for acquiring a specific skill.

c.

potential to solve problems.

d.

overall adjustment.@

26.

The sentence completion test such as the Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank is an example of a

a.

personality test.@

b.

educational test.

c.

ability test.

d.

achievement test.

27.

The California Psychological Inventory (CPI) is an example of

a.

comprehensive objective personality test@

b.

domain specific personality test.

c.

behavior rating scale.

d.

projective test.

28.

True The TRIN scale of the MMPI-2 consists of

a.

number of true (or false) responses on pairs of items opposite in content.@

b.

number of inconsistent responses to pairs that may be either similar or opposite in content.

c.

number of omitted or double-marked items.

d.

items with low endorsement rates.

29.

The Eating Disorder Inventory (EDI-3) is developed using

a.

the criterion-keying approach.

b.

content method.

c.

factor analysis.

d.

multiple approaches.@

30.

Which of the following illustrates lack of convergent validity?

a.

Demonstrating that tests A, B, and C all measure the same things for the same purpose.

b.

Demonstrating a particular relationship between a test of job satisfaction and an employee's stated job satisfaction.

c.

Demonstrating a relationship between the results of a physical exam and a health index score.

d.

Demonstrating that a score on the SAT and ACT have a low correlation.@