ExamTests with Psychometrics: An Introduction by Furr - 3rd edition

What is psychometrics? - ExamTests 1

MC questions

Question 1

For the differences, indicate which of the two differences below (a or b) you measure:

1. intra-individual differences
2. inter-individual differences

1. Behavior of individual at different times
2. Behavior of two or more people

Question 2

What conditions does a psychological test need, according to Cronbach, not to meet?

1. Samples collected in a systematic way.
2. The aim is to measure behavior.
3. Test must have behavioral samples.
4. Test must be taken at different times.

Question 3

What are malingering and demand characteristics examples of?

1. Participant reactivity
2. Score sensitivity
3. Bias
4. Composite scores

Question 4

A multiple choice exam in which you have only passed or failed is an example of:

1. An open- ended and norm-referenced test.
2. A closed-ended and norm-referenced test.
3. An open-ended and criterion-referenced test.
4. A closed-ended and criterion-referenced test.

Question 5

Which matters are important when measuring a psychological attribute that is not immediately observable ?

1. Assumption of relationship, task linked to theory and operationalisable definitions.
2. Reliability, task linked to theory and operationalizable definitions.
3. Assumption of relationship, operationalisable definitions and reliability.
4. Only validity and reliability.

Question 6

All group 8 students are tested for their reading skills with different assignments. For this they receive a long list with all the words they need to read as much as possible in 5 minutes. What kind of test is this?

1. Speeded test
2. Power test
3. Open- ended test

Question 7

The group 8 students are tested for their reading skills for a second time. This time they receice a list of difficult words, where the number of correct read out words is calculated. What kind of test is this?

1. Open-ended test
2. Power test
3. Closed-ended test
4. Speeded test

Question 8

Psychometrics relates to:

1. The procedures that are used to estimate and evaluate test attributes.
2. To evaluate differences between specific psychological testen.

Question 9

What is, according to Furr, psychometrics?

1. A procedure for the conduct of people with elka compare ar.
2. A set of procedures to determine and evaluate psychological test characteristics.
3. A systematic approach to making statements about hypothetical constructs.
4. Measuring differences between human psyc hological characteristics.

Answer indication

Question 1

A = 1, B = 2

Question 2

D. Test must be taken at different times.

Question 3

A. Participant reactivity

Question 4

D. This exam is closed-ended because someone can choose from a limited number of choices. It is criterion referenced because a limit has been set (eg 13 errors is sufficient) that someone must meet to pass the exam.

Question 5

A. An assumption of relationship between observable behavior and the attribute, this would mean that the test is (at least partially) valid. A theoretical link between the task and the attribute to be measured is important to enable validity. Validity is important because in this case it must be determined with which you can measure the attribute. Operational definitions make it possible to measure and understand unclear concepts (such as intelligence, learning and dreams).

Question 6

A. Speed tests are tests with a time limit and where you are not expected to complete the entire test and where the test is how far you will respond. This assumes a high probability that answered questions are answered correctly.

Question 7

B. Power tests are tests without a time limit and in which the answers are actually important, in which the given answer is looked at and based on this a score is determined for the number of correct answers.

Question 8

A. With psychometrics the emphasis is on the attributes of tests and being able to evaluate this.

Question 9

B. Psychometrics is the study of evaluating the attributes of psychological tests.

What is important when assigning numbers to psychological constructs? - ExamTests 2

MC questions

Question 1

Of what characteristic should a category consist?

1. Categories must be mutually exclusive.
2. Subjects within the category must be identical on the chosen trait.
3. Everyone must fit into a category.
4. All of the above.

Question 2

Combine the measurement scales (1, 2, 3, 4) with the right examples (a, b, c, d):

1. Nominal
2. Ordinal
3. Ratio
4. Interval

1. Age
2. Intelligence
3. Sex
4. Response time

Question 3

Determine whether the statements are true or false.

1. A unit of measurement is arbitrary because the original unit is arbitrarily determined.
2. A unit of measurement is arbitrary because it can measure multiple types of objects.
3. A unit of measurement is arbitrary because it can perform multiple types of measurements.

Question 4

With an interval scale you can apply the following calculations:

1. With an interval scale you cannot calculate something, you can only distinguish between categories.
2. You can add and subtract here.
3. You can multiply and divide but also add and subtract.
4. You may only multiply and divide.

Question 5

Which of these four examples belongs in an interval scale?

1. Degrees Celsius
2. Response time
3. Money
4. Distance

Question 6

What is the difference between an ordinal scale and a nominal scale?

1. With a nominal scale there is no zero point and with an ordinal scale there is.
2. With a nominal scale there is no order and with an ordinal scale there is.
3. With an ordinal scale there is no zero point and with a nominal scale there is.
4. With an ordinal scale there is no order and with a nominal scale there is.

Question 7

Measuring with a unit of measurement assumes an important assumption, what is this?

1. The size of the unit of measurement must always be the same size.
2. The unit of measurement can always be used in several ways.

Question 8

With a driving test, there is a ... variable with which one can pass or fail. The blood type of a test subject is based on a…. variable.

1. Dichotomous, Categorical
2. Dichotomous, Continuous
3. Categorical, Dichotomous
4. Categorical, Continuous

Answer indication

Question 1

D. The three requirements mentioned are the standard requirements that a category must meet.

Question 2

1. C, because gender has categories but no order,
2. A, because age has a sequence,
3. D, because reaction time has an absolute zero,
4. B, because intelligence has an arbitrary zero point.

Question 3

All three statements are true.

Question 4

B. With an interval scale you have an arbitrary zero point, therefore you can only add an substract, but not multiply and divide.

Question 5

A. At degrees celsius there is an arbitrary zero point, therefore an interval scale is suitable for this.

Question 6

B. Nominal only indicates difference and interval indicates, in addition to a difference, also a sequence.

Question 7

A. If the size of the unit of measurement is not always the same, you cannot measure with it because you then provide no / little information.

Question 8

A. dichotomous has 2 options: (0 or 1 / bags or strokes etc.) and a categorical variable has several categories (not necessarily limited to 2 options).

MC questions

Question 1

Of what characteristic should a category consist?

1. Categories must be mutually exclusive.
2. Subjects within the category must be identical on the chosen trait.
3. Everyone must fit into a category.
4. All of the above.

Answer indication

Question 1

D. The three requirements mentioned are the standard requirements that a category must meet.

What are variability and covariability? - ExamTests 3

MC questions

Question 1

What is the difference between variability and covariability?

1. The subject that is compared to another (the same for both) subject.
2. The subjects that are compared with each other.
3. Both of the above answers are correct.
4. None of the above answers is correct.

Question 2

A test (Test A) is performed in which there are several measurement moments. Every participant takes the same test again at every measurement moment (Test A). The measurement results of the different participants at all times are compared with each other. What differences can be looked at?

1. Only intra-individual differences.
2. Only Interindividual differences.
3. Both intra-individual and inter-individual differences.
4. Neither of the two differences.

Question 3

Calculate the mean of both rows separately:

1. 100, 120, 110, 105, 115
2. 11, 13, 17, 33, 16, 6

Question 4

Calculate the variance from the following standard deviations:

1. s = 100
2. s = 1
3. s = 25.2

Question 5

Calculate the standard deviations from the following variances:

1. s² = 2500
2. s² = 900
3. s² = 144

Question 6

Combine the most likely correlations to the good topics:

Question 7

For a Sum of Squares of 2000 with N=5, what is the standaard deviation?

1. 20
2. 400
3. 22,36
4. √500

Question 8

Complete the table (a t/m e):

Question 9

Which correlation list(s) are correct?

Question 10

Is the table below the correct norm table for the raw test score X (M = 80, SD = 12)?

1. The z-scores are correct; the T-scores are incorrect.
2. The T-scores are correct; the z-scores are incorrect.
3. Both the z-scores and T-scores are correct.
4. Both the z-scores and T-scores are incorrect.

Answer indication

Question 1

B. Co-variability is the degree to which the variability between different score sets match. Variability is the difference within a set of scores. Therefore, the subjects are different and there is no question of 1 the same subject in covariability and variability.

Question 2

C. Both intra-individual differences (the results of a participant over all measuring moments) can be looked at as well as inter-individual differences (between the participants).

Question 3

1. 100+120+110+105+115= 550. 550/N = mean. 550/5=110
2. 11+13+17+33+16+6 = 96 --> 96/6 = 16

Question 4

S² is the variance. So to go from s to s², this just needs to be squared. a is therefore 1002 = 10,000, b is 12 = 1, and c is 25.22 = 635.04.

s² is the variance. To calculate the variance using the standard deviation, the standard deviation needs to be squared.

1. 100²= 10.000
2. 1²= 1
3. 25,2²= 635,04

Question 5

s² is the variance. To calculate the standard deviation using the variance, only the √s² needs to be calculated.

1. √2500= 50
2. √900= 30
3. √144= 12

Question 6

1. B, the level of your education level is likely to have a positive relationship with your income.
2. A, the higher your alcohol level, the less good the ability to walk straight across a line will be, this is therefore a negative relationship.
3. C.

Question 7

A.

Sum of Squares / N = 2000/5 = 400 = s².

√400 = 20.

Question 8

To calculate a cross product, the deviations can multiply with each other.

1. 0 x 20 = 0
2. 10 x 10 = 100
3. 0 x 30 = 0
4. 20 x 5 = 100
5. 5 x 10 = 50

Question 9

List A and B are good, correlations can be between -1 and 1.

Question 10

D. Both the z-scores and T-scores are incorrect.

MC questions

Question 1

What is the difference between variability and covariability?

1. The subject that is compared to another (the same for both) subject.
2. The subjects that are compared with each other.
3. Both of the above answers are correct.
4. None of the above answers is correct.

Answer indication

Question 1

B. Co-variability is the degree to which the variability between different score sets match. Variability is the difference within a set of scores. Therefore, the subjects are different and there is no question of 1 the same subject in covariability and variability.

What is dimensionality and what is factor analysis? ExamTests 4

MC questions

Question 1

What questions are asked about the dimensionality of a test?

1. How many dimensions the test has.
2. How these dimensions are measured.
3. When these dimensions are measured.
4. Whether the dimensions are correlated.

1. Only I. and II. are true
2. III only. and IV. are true
3. Only I. and IV. are true
4. II only. and III. are true

Question 2

The WISC intelligence test is an example of a:

1. Unidimensional test.
2. Multidimensional test with correlated dimensions.
3. Multidimensional test without correlated dimensions.

Question 3

Combine the terms:

1. Unidimensional test
2. Multidimensional test with correlated dimensions
3. Multidimensional test without correlated dimensions

1. Test with higher order factors
2. Conceptual homogeneity
3. Test without higher order factors

Question 4

Which statement (s) is / are true?

1. A test where questions only reflect math skills is a unidimensional test.
2. A test where math skills and reading skills are reflected is a multi-dimensional test.
3. The WISC is a unidimensional test.

1. Only I. and II. are true
2. Only I. is true
3. Only II. is true
4. II only. and III. are true
5. None of the claims is true

Question 5

Which statement (s) is / are not true?

1. I and II are true
2. I, III and IV are true
3. All statements are true
4. All statements are not true

Question 6

When we look at the "eigenvalues ​​greater than one" rule, how many dimensions are there?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4 or more

Question 7

Which of these statements are true?

1. Use CFA if you already have a better view of the test.
2. With a CFA you check your own idea about dimensions, for example.

1. Only I. is true
2. Only II. is true
3. Both statements are true
4. Both statements are not true

Question 8

In a PCA solution, by far the most variance is explained by the first two components. A picture is made of the 2-component solution, which looks like this:

Which pair of variables is probably the most correlated?

1. V5 and V6
2. V2 and V8
3. V4 and V5
4. V2 and V3

Question 9

Which of the following statements about principal components in PCA is incorrect?

1. When choosing a principal component, true score variance is maximized at the expense of error variance.
2. A principal component can be seen as a direction in the p-dimensional space of the variables.
3. In the unspoiled solution, each principal component is orthogonal to all other principal components.
4. The first principal component explains as much variance as possible of the variables.

Answer indication

Question 1

C. The third question (not mentioned in this question) is if the test has more than one dimension, what are those dimensions?

Question 2

B. An intelligence test consists of a general factor measured by different sub-factors. These sub-factors each represent different types of intelligence.

Question 3

1. B.
2. A.
3. C.

Question 4

A. A test where questions only reflect math skills is a unidimensional test, because only one dimension is measured. With mathematical and reading skills, there are two dimensions, which means that this is a multidimensional test. The WISC is a multidimensional test, becauses it assesses different psychological attributes.

Question 5

B. Identifying the number of dimensions or factors is the second step in performing an EFA. The first step is choosing a statistical technique.

Question 6

B. Considering the eigenvalue greater than one rule, you look at the number of values greater than 1. Each of these values ​​higher than 1 count as a dimension. In this particular question there are 2 values higher than 1, which might conclude that the test items reflect 2 dimensions.

Question 7

C. Both statements are true. CFA is a test to check your existing idea about the test.

Question 8

D. V2 and V3

Question 9

A. When choosing a principal component, true score variance is maximized at the expense of error variance.

MC questions

Question 1

What questions are asked about the dimensionality of a test?

1. How many dimensions the test has.
2. How these dimensions are measured.
3. When these dimensions are measured.
4. Whether the dimensions are correlated.

1. Only I. and II. are true
2. III only. and IV. are true
3. Only I. and IV. are true
4. II only. and III. are true

Answer indication

Question 1

C. The third question (not mentioned in this question) is if the test has more than one dimension, what are those dimensions?

What is reliability? - ExamTests 5

MC questions

Question 1

From which of the factors below is reliability not derived according to the Classic Test Theory?

1. True scores
2. Observed scores
3. Total scores
4. Measurement errors

Question 2

How is reliability defined in classical test theory?

1. The variance of the error scores divided by that of the observed scores.
2. The variance of the observed scores divided by that of the true scores.
3. The variance of the true scores divided by that of the observed scores.
4. The variance of the observed scores divided by that of the error scores.

Question 3

What is an important assumption about the error?

1. The error has a random effect and is independent of the variables.
2. The effect of error is 0.
3. The error has no random effect and is not independent of the variables.

Question 4

What are the consequences of the assumption of question 3? You can select multiple answers.

1. The average effect of the error is zero.
2. Error scores are not correlated with true scores.
3. Error scores are not correlated with observed scores.
4. Error scores are correlated with true scores.

Question 5

r²_oe = 0.4, s²_e = 20. What is the reliability?

1. 0.6
2. 0.4
3. 5
4. 1.6

Question 6

s2_e = 200, s²_o = 600. What is the reliability?

1. 0.33
2. 0.50
3. 0.67
4. 0.75

Question 7

Which of the following statements are not true?

1. If r²_oe is zero, the reliability is 1.
2. If r²_oe is zero, the reliability is also zero.
3. If c_oe is 1, s²_e is too.
4. If c_oe is 1, s²_e is 0.

Question 8

What is true?

1. se_m can never be greater than s_o
2. se_m is 0 if R_XX is 1.

1. Only I is true.
2. Only II is true.
3. Both answers are true.
4. None of the answers is true.

Question 9

Sometimes two tests can be mentioned in parallel. Which assumptions do tests need to meet to be called parallel?

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. I and III
4. II and III
5. None of the above assumptions

Question 10

R_XX = 0.7, S20 = 200. What is se_m?

1. 3,439
2. 10,46
3. 28
4. 140

Question 11

Which of the four models below has the most restrictions (assumptions)?

1. Parallel testing
2. Tau equivalent
3. Essentially tau equivalent
4. Congeneric

Question 12

What is the reliability of a test with a standard deviation of the observed scores 15 and a standard measurement error of 9?

1. 0.75
2. 0.64
3. 0.60
4. 0.40

Answer indication

Question 1

C. Total scores are not included. Reliability consists of true scores, observed scores and measurement errors.

Question 2

C. The variance of the true scores divided by that of the observed scores.

Question 3

A. The error has a random effect and is independent of the variables.

Question 4

A and B.

Question 5

A. Rxx = 1 - r²_oe. So 1 - 0.4 = 0.6

Question 6

C.

s²_t = - s²_o - s²_e

s²_t = 600 - 200 = 400

R_XX = s²_t / s²_o

R_XX = 400/600 = 0.67

Question 7

B and D are not true: Rxx = 1-r20u. And coe is equal to s2e.

Question 8

C. An error cannot be higher than the total observed score. If there was no measurement error, there was perfect reliability.

Question 9

C. I and III

Question 10

B.

R_XX= 0,7, s²_o=200.

s_e = se_m

s²_e= s_o √(1 - R_XX) = 200 √(1 - 0,7) = 109,54

s_e = √109,54 = 10,46

se_m = 10,46

Question 11

A. With parallel tests, most assumptions are made. In addition to the standard assumptions from the classical test theory, this model also has three extra assumptions.

Question 12

B.

s_o = 15 en se_m = 9

se_m =s_e

s²_o = 15² = 225

s²_e = 9² = 81

R_XX = 1- (s²_e / s²_o)

R_XX = 1- (81/225) = 0,64

MC questions

Question 1

From which of the factors below is reliability not derived according to the Classic Test Theory?

1. True scores
2. Observed scores
3. Total scores
4. Measurement errors

Answer indication

Question 1

C. Total scores are not included. Reliability consists of true scores, observed scores and measurement errors.

How to empirically estimate the reliability? - ExamTests 6

MC questions

Question 1

When do two tests meet the criteria for being a parallel test?

1. The two tests are parallel if both tests measure the same set of true scores.
2. The two tests are parallel if they both have the same error variance.
3. The two tests are parallel if the same test is measured twice.

1. Only with I.
2. Only with I. and II.
3. Only with II.
4. Both II. and III.

Question 2

If test subjects have a deviating score due to a previous test, can good reliability be measured from a parallel test?

1. No, then there is no longer a parallel test
2. Yes, reliability can still be measured
3. This is unknown

Question 3

Which of the reasons why the stability consumption of the test-retest reliability can be problematic are real reasons? (Multiple answers may be correct).

1. Some attributes are not as stable as other attributes.
2. The interval lengths sometimes cause problems.
3. Some periods in the life of a participant are not that stable.

Question 4

What is the consequence of the incorrect use of the stability assumption?

1. The reliability cannot be measured properly.
2. The measurement error and the change of the true scores cannot easily be broken down.
3. Both A and B are true.
4. A and B are both not true.

Question 5

Internal consistency is a practical alternative to "alternate form" and test-retest reliability. Why is this the case?

1. No more than 1 test is required.
2. No more than 1 test moment is required.
3. Both A and B are true.
4. Both A and B are not true.

Question 6

When looking at Split half estimates, and the r_hh = 0.4. What is the R_XX then?

1. 0.38
2. 0.40
3. 0.57
4. 0.80

Question 7

What is the reliability when you have this information: r_ii = 0.6. k = 5?

1. 0.33
2. 0.66
3. 0.88
4. 0.95

Question 8

Which calculation was used for the previous question?

1. Raw alpha coefficient
2. Split-half estimates
3. Standardized alpha coefficient
4. Raw alpha for binary items

Question 9

What is not a recognized method of estimating the reliability of a test?

1. Coefficient alpha calculated on the items of a test.
2. The correlation between the scores on a test and those on a parallel test.
3. The correlation between the scores on a test and those on a repeated test.
4. The correlation between the scores on a test before an intervention and those on the same test after the intervention.

Question 10

A test of 30 items is split into two parallel pieces of 15 items each. The correlation between the scores on each piece of 15 items is 0.60. What is the reliability of the entire test according to the "prophecy" formula of Spearman-Brown?

1. 0.45
2. 0.75
3. 0.82
4. 0.88

Answer indication

Question 1

B. 1 and 2 are the standard rules for the parallel test, rule number 3 has to do with test-retest reliability.

Question 2

A. According to the classical test theory, this would mean that the error scores do correlate, so that there is no longer a real parallel test.

Question 3

All three answers are correct.

Question 4

C. If the stability consumption is incorrect, you have a score with the change of the true score and the measurement error, so you cannot determine either of these separately. Your reliability cannot be calculated correctly due to these measurement errors.

Question 5

C. With an internal consistency reliability you only need 1 test at only 1 test moment to determine the reliability.

Question 6

C.

R_xx = 2r_hh / (1 + r_hh).

R_xx = (2x0.4) / (1 +0,4) = 0.8 / 1.4 = 0.57.

Question 7

C.

R_xx= kr_ii / 1+(k-1) r_ii.
R_xx= (5x0,6) / (1+ (5-1) x 0,6 = 3 / 3,4 = 0,88

Question 8

C. Standardized alpha coefficient

Question 9

D. The correlation between the scores on a test before an intervention and those on the same test after the intervention.

Question 10

B.

R_xx = 2r_hh / (1 + r_hh).

R_xx = (2x0.6) / (1 +0,6) = 1,2 / 1.6 = 0.75.

MC questions

Question 1

When do two tests meet the criteria for being a parallel test?

1. The two tests are parallel if both tests measure the same set of true scores.
2. The two tests are parallel if they both have the same error variance.
3. The two tests are parallel if the same test is measured twice.

1. Only with I.
2. Only with I. and II.
3. Only with II.
4. Both II. and III.

Answer indication

Question 1

B. 1 and 2 are the standard rules for the parallel test, rule number 3 has to do with test-retest reliability.

What is the importance of reliability? - ExamTests 7

MC questions

Mind a different notation in this chapter:

• XM_o = test's mean observed score, M of Mean (the usual notation is a X with a dash on it).

Question 1

What is the formula of the estimated true score?

1. X_est = XM_o+ R_XX (X_o - XM_o)
2. X_est = X + R_XX (X_o - X)
3. Xest = XM_o+ R_XX (X_o - X_e)
4. Xest = X + R_XX (X_o-X_e)

Question 2

R_xx = 0,5, s_o = 5. What is the se_m?

1. 2,35
2. 2,50
3. 3,54
4. 5,71

Question 3

What is the 95% confidence interval for the following information?

se_m = 5, X_t = 15, X_e = 5.

Question 4

Which of the statement(s) is/are true?

1. Covariance of X and Y has the following formula: Covx0y0=Cxtyt+cxtye+cxeye+Cxeyteo.
2. Covariance of X and Y has the following formula: Cx0y0=cxtyt+cxtye+cxeyt+cxeye.
3. Covariance of X and Y has a shortened formula: cxy=cxtyt.
4. Covariance of X and Y has a shortened formula: cxy=cxtyt/SoSy0.

Question 5

Which of these consequences of measurement errors is not true?

1. Observed score correlations will always be weaker than those of true scores.
2. It is not possible to give an estimate of the true correlation, if it was not influenced by weakening, between two constructs.
3. The error limits the maximum correlation to be found.
4. The degree of attenuation depends on the degree of reliability of the individual tests.

Question 6

What does it mean to have a high item-total correlation?

1. That a person on a certain item looks like the whole of the participants.
2. That a person on a certain item does not look like the whole of the participants.
3. That a test item is consistent with the test.
4. That 1 participant on a certain item deviates from his total of answers.

Question 7

What is compared with the item discrimination index (D)?

1. The proportion (p) of people who scored high on the test with the proportion (p) of people who scored low on the test. Both correct and incorrect questions.
2. The proportion (p) of people who scored high on the test with the proportion (p) of people who scored low on the test. Only when properly answered questions.
3. The effect of an item on a test with other items on the same test.
4. The proportion of items that have been answered correctly.

Question 8

What does an item average of 0.85 say in a binary test?

1. That 85% of the participants answered an item correctly.
2. That a participant has an 85% chance of a correct answer.
3. That an item is 85% reliable.
4. No of the above answers.

Answer indication

Question 1

A. X_est = XM_o+ R_XX (X_o - XM_o)

Question 2

C.

se_m = s_o√(1-R_xx).

se_m= 5 x √(1 - 0,5)

se_m = 5 x 0,71 = 3.54

Question 3

For the 95% confidence interval, we use this formula: X 0 ± (1.96) (se_m).

The z score with 2 standard deviations (95%) is 1.96. We stick to that in the formula.

se_m is 5 so Xo is the only unknown in the formula.

We then know Xt + Xe = Xo.

So Xo in this case is 15 + 5 = 20.

20 ± (1.96) (5). -> 20 ± 9.8. 95% confidence interval: 10.2 to 29.8.

Question 4

B en C are correct.

D is the correlation that can be calculated from the covariance; A has some mistakes in the notation.

Question 5

B is wrong, because consequence 4 implies that it is possible to estimate the true correlation between two constructs. There is a formula (the correction for attenuation) in which the true correlation can be estimated if there was no attenuation.

Question 6

C. That a test item is consistent with the test.

Question 7

B. Only well-answered questions are included in this comparison.

Question 8

A. 0,85 indicates the degree to which participants have answered an item correctly and this equals 85%.

MC questions

Mind a different notation in this chapter:

• XM_o = test's mean observed score, M of Mean (the usual notation is a X with a dash on it).

Question 1

What is the formula of the estimated true score?

1. X_est = XM_o+ R_XX (X_o - XM_o)
2. X_est = X + R_XX (X_o - X)
3. Xest = XM_o+ R_XX (X_o - X_e)
4. Xest = X + R_XX (X_o-X_e)

Answer indication

Question 1

A. X_est = XM_o+ R_XX (X_o - XM_o)

What is validity? - ExamTests 8

MC questions

Question 1

Face validity is:

1. The extent to which a measurement seems related to a specific construct.
2. The extent to which a measurement is related to a specific construct.
3. The visible reliability of the test.
4. The extent to which the constructs are properly measured.

Question 2

If someone wants to know if a test is a good measurement method for a construct:

1. Gives content validity good information.
2. Gives face validity good information.
3. Gives reliability good information.

Question 3

Factor analysis ensures:

1. That the internal structure of a test can be measured.
2. That separate factors can be added.
3. That factors are removed.
4. That a test factor can be analyzed.

Question 4

Which function does factor analysis not have?

1. Link linked items to associated factors.
2. Find connections between factors in a multidimensional test.
3. Inventing the number of factors in a set of items.
4. Distinguishing items within a factor.

Question 5

Motivation in our results is correlated with better results, which should also be theoretically the case. There is:

1. Discriminant evidence
2. Convergent proof
3. Neither
4. Both A and B

Question 6

In theory, IQ and happiness are not correlated, there is no connection in the research. There is:

1. Discriminant evidence
2. Convergent proof
3. Neither
4. Both A and B

Question 7

Link linked items to associated factors.The driving test theory is an example of:

1. Competitor validity
2. Predicti e ve validity
3. Discriminant evidence

Question 8

Is it true that validity criterion is used to distinguish groups?

1. Yes
2. No
3. No statement can be made about this.

Question 9

Which form of validity is central to research into personnel selection?

1. Content validity
2. Predictive validity
3. Face validity
4. Construct validity

Question 10

The validity of a new questionnaire for depression (N) is examined by comparing it with an existing questionnaire for depression (D) and an existing questionnaire for work attitude (W). The starting point is that depression and work attitude should hardly be related. The following correlations are found: rND = 0.63, rNW = 0.11 and rDW = 0.08 . This indicates:

1. Only divergent validity of N.
2. Only convergent validity of N.
3. Both convergent and divergent validity of N.
4. Neither convergent nor divergent validity of N.

Question 11

Assess whether it is correct that the work sample method of personnel selection is based on the following assumptions.

1. You can predict future behavior based on current behavior.
2. Future work performance can be predicted well if you know the personality characteristics of the applicant.

1. Statement I is not correct, statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct, statement II is not correct
3. Both statements are correct
4. Neither of these statements is correct

Answer indication

Question 1

A. Face validity is all about making it seem so related, not whether or not it is.

Question 2

B. Participants are generally categorized as being the non-experts and when we look at the opinion about the validity of this group we are talking about face validity: whether it initially seems to be that way.

Question 3

A. In this case, the content is important, and how it looks and how reliable it is is of less importance.

Question 4

A. Link linked items to associated factors.

Question 5

D. Both A and B

Question 6

B. Convergent proof

Question 7

A. Discriminant evidence describes the extent to which test scores are uncorrelated with tests of uncorrelated construct.

Question 8

B. Because the measurement is the extent to which the current test score (knowledge about traffic rules ) is correlated with a relevant variable that can only be measured in the future (being able to drive and apply the traffic rules).

Question 9

A. Yes, validity criterion can divide groups (met and not met a specific criterion).

Question 10

B. Only convergent validity of N.

Question 11

C. Both statements are correct

MC questions

Question 1

Face validity is:

1. The extent to which a measurement seems related to a specific construct.
2. The extent to which a measurement is related to a specific construct.
3. The visible reliability of the test.
4. The extent to which the constructs are properly measured.

Answer indication

Question 1

A. Face validity is all about making it seem so related, not whether or not it is.

How to evaluate evidence for convergent and divergent validity? - ExamTests 9

MC questions

Question 1

Validity generalization research aims at:

1. Evaluating the predictive power of a test score over different settings and situations.
2. Evaluating the predictive capacity of test scores within a setting or situation.
3. Comparing all types of validity.
4. None of the above options.

Question 2

What does MTMMM stand for?

Question 3

What is not an important characteristic of an MTMMM?

1. Multiple measurements for traits are performed.
2. Multiple types of measurements are performed.
3. Among other things, shared method variance is avoided.
4. With heterotrait heteromethod the strength correlation is expected.

Question 4

Link the types of correlations to the examples:

Question 5

Which statement (s) is / are true?

1. QCV is intended to provide a precise and objective estimate.
2. In this emphasis on precision, QCV is different than previously discussed approaches.
3. rcontrastCV is one of the effect sizes.
4. A value of ralerting CV of -0.5 is possible.

Question 6

Calculate the correlation between motivation and general interest.
True correlation is 0.6, Motivation test is 0.81 reliable, general interest is 0.49.

1. 0.238
2. 0.378
3. 0.622
4. 0.702

Question 7

The formula for the correlation between a continuous and a dichotomous variable (r_CD) is:

1. r CD = c CD / S D
2. r CD = c CD / s C s D
3. r CD = p 1 p 2 (C 2gem - C 1gem)

Question 8

If the Cohen guideline is assumed and there is a reliability of 0.58 ...

1. ... then this is a small correlation
2. ... then this is a medium correlation
3. ... then this is a big correlation
4. ... There is insufficient data available for this

Question 9

If Hemphill 's guideline is assumed and there is a reliability of 0.29 ...

1. ... then there is no small correlation
2. ... then this is a small correlation
3. ... then this is a medium correlation
4. ... then this is a big correlation

Question 10

A test for paranoia, a condition that occurs in 2.5 percent of the population, has a sensitivity (ie, sensitivity) of .80 and a specificity of .95. Based on this test, Joop learns that he is a paranoia sufferer, but suspects that his enemies are behind this. What is the probability that Joop actually suffers from paranoia?

1. 76 - 100%
2. 51 - 75%
3. 26 - 50%
4. 0 - 25%

Question 11

What do we mean by the specificity of a measuring instrument that seeks to determine the presence (positive diagnosis) or absence (negative diagnosis) of a certain disorder?

1. The chance that ... then this is a big correlationsomeone who has the condition will get a negative diagnosis.
2. The chance that someone who does not have the condition will get a negative diagnosis.
3. The chance of a negative diagnosis.
4. The chance that someone who does not have the condition will get a positive diagnosis.

Answer indication

Question 1

A. Evaluating the predictive power of a test score over different settings and situations.

Question 2

MultiTrait-MultiMethod Matrices. (what has uppercase letters together forms MTMMM)

Question 3

D. with a heterotrait heteromethod , the lowest correlation is expected precisely because correlations have been filtered out using the same method and the like.

Question 4

1. A.
2. C.
3. B.
4. D.

Question 5

All four statements are true.

Question 6

B. r_xoyo = r_xtyt √ (r_xxr_yy).

_rxoyo = 0.6 x (0.9 x 0.7) = 0.6 x 0.63 = 0.378.

Question 7

A. r CD = c CD / S D

Question 8

C. ... then this is a big correlation

Question 9

C. ... then this is a medium correlation

Question 10

C. 26 - 50%

Question 11

B. The chance that someone who does not have the condition will get a negative diagnosis.

MC questions

Question 1

Validity generalization research aims at:

1. Evaluating the predictive power of a test score over different settings and situations.
2. Evaluating the predictive capacity of test scores within a setting or situation.
3. Comparing all types of validity.
4. None of the above options.

Answer indication

Question 1

A. Evaluating the predictive power of a test score over different settings and situations.

What types of response bias are there? - ExamTests 10

MC questions

Question 1

Which type of response bias is likely to occur on a multiple choice (MC) test?

1. Acquiensence bias
2. Extreme / average answers
3. Social desirability
4. Exaggerate problems
5. Random answers
6. Gamble

Question 2

With which bias does a participant agree or disagree too quickly with a statement, without fully understanding its meaning?

1. Acquinsence bias
2. Extreme / average answers
3. Social desirability
4. Exaggerate problems
5. Random answers
6. Gamble

Question 3

If a test is not anonymous, there is a greater chance of:

1. Acquiensence bias
2. Extreme / average answers
3. Social desirability
4. Exaggerate problems
5. Random answers
6. Gamble

Question 4

What kind of bias is likely for someone who finds the test to be long and boring?

1. Acquiensence bias
2. Extreme / average answers
3. Social desirability
4. Exaggerate problems
5. Random answers
6. Gamble

Question 5

If someone benefits from, for example, a diagnosis of a condition, which bias could occur?

1. Acquiensence bias
2. Extreme / average answers
3. Social desirability
4. Exaggerate problems
5. Random answers
6. Gamble

Question 6

Which statements are correct?

1. A good way to counteract answer bias is to make the test in such a way that the chance of this decreases.
2. Making tests anonymous reduces socially desirable answers.
3. With anonymity there are again risks for other forms of bias.
4. A better concentration of the participant could help prevent bias.

Question 7

Which of the aforementioned statements are true?

1. Too long tests have a negative effect on validity.
2. If a participant thinks that inaccurate answers can be recognized, the validity increases.
3. Both are true.
4. None of the answers is true.

Question 8

To which of the four options does the example belong:
A man goes to the doctor for a test of a disorder. A week later he is told that the test shows that he indeed has the condition. The test is incorrect.

1. True positive
2. False positive
3. False negative
4. True negative

Answer indication

Question 1

F. There is a chance that people will gamble on a multiple choice test.

Question 2

A. Acquiensence bias means that people respond yes or no or in one direction to a statement quickly without having to think carefully about its meaning.

Question 3

C. If people take part in a test where their name must be given, there is a greater chance that they will give socially desirable answers.

Question 4

E. If someone finds the test boring or the test takes too long, there is a chance that they will no longer seriously read and answer the questions. The person will then answer randomly or give answers that have nothing to do with his or her own opinion / experiences.

Question 5

D. Exaggeration of problems (Malingering) is a phenomenon in which someone pretends that his or her brain injury or condition is worse what is actually the case, because the person can personally gain from it. Surcharges, benefits, other care or compensation can be seen as examples for such personal gain.

Question 6

All statements are true.

Question 7

C. Both are true.

Question 8

B. a false positive: the result appears to be positive but this result is not justified.

MC questions

Question 1

Which type of response bias is likely to occur on a multiple choice (MC) test?

1. Acquiensence bias
2. Extreme / average answers
3. Social desirability
4. Exaggerate problems
5. Random answers
6. Gamble

Answer indication

Question 1

F. There is a chance that people will gamble on a multiple choice test.

What types of test bias are there? - ExamTests 11

MC questions

Question 1

What is not possible with construct bias?

1. Compare all scores on a test.
2. Compare scores of people from different groups.
3. Compare scores of individuals from 1 group.
4. Make a test look good for non-experts.

Question 2

Prediction bias is when ...

1. The relationship between true and observed score differs between two groups.
2. There is no relationship between true and observed score.
3. The relationship between true and observed score is similar in two groups.
4. None of the options above.

Question 3

Which statement is true?

I. Item discrimination index can be used to discover construct bias.
II. Differential item function analysis can also be used to discover construct bias.
III. Factor analysis can be used to evaluate the internal structure of a test, separately for two groups.

1. All statements are true
2. Only statements I. and II. are true
3. Only statements I. and III. are true
4. Only statements II. and III. are true
5. None of the statements is true

Question 4

Are these statements true or false:

1. The predictive and construct bias are independent of each other.
2. The predicitive bias is more about the significance of the test.
3. The construct bias is more about the usability of the test.

Question 5

Is a difference in test scores between groups sufficient reason to assume that there is a bias? (possibly multiple answers)

1. Yes, this is a clear indication and is therefore reason enough.
2. No, there can also be a real difference between groups.
3. Yes, but only if the different responses are not related to the group differences.

Question 6

Which statement is true?

I. Two separate groups in a test do not show the same internal structure for their test scores. We can therefore conclude that the test suffers from construct bias.
II. Two separate groups in a test display have the same internal structure for their test scores. We can therefore conclude that the test does not suffer from construct bias.

1. Only statement I. is true
2. Position II only. is true
3. Both statements are true
4. Neither of these statements is true

Question 7

What is not a method to detect construct bias?

1. Item discrimination index
2. Factor analysis
3. Differential item function analysis
4. Item order

Question 8

Are these statements true or false?

1. If the common regression line corresponds to the separate lines per group, there is a bias.
2. The common regression line is based on a regression formula based on all data from 1 group.

Question 9

Are these statements true or false?

1. With intercept bias , the regression lines are parallel to each other.
2. With a slopebias , the regression lines are parallel to each other.

Question 10

In which bias is difference consistency involved?

1. Intercept bias
2. Slopebias
3. Intercept and slopebias
4. There is no difference consistency in any of the above biases.

Question 11

What type of proof is not relevant for construct validity?

1. Face validity of the items
2. Response processes of tested persons
3. Internal structure of the test items
4. Content validity of the items

Answer indication

Question 1

A. Because construct bias means that scores on a test can have different meanings for different groups. They cannot be properly compared with this reason.

Question 2

A. The relationship between true and observed score differs between two groups.

Question 3

A. All statements are correct.

Question 4

Only statement A is true, because the types of bias at B and C have been reversed.

Question 5

B and C are right, A. is not, this is a too fast and unequivocal conclusion.

Question 6

A. Only statement I. is true

Question 7

D. Rank order is a method to discover construct bias but item order is not.

Question 8

A is true, B. not: the regression formula for the common regression line is based on data from all groups, not just 1 group.

Question 9

Yes, only the intercept differs between the groups, the direction coefficient is the same.

Question 10

A. With intercept bias, the difference remains constant while the x rises or falls. This is not the case with the rest.

Question 11

A. Face validity of the items

MC questions

Question 1

What is not possible with construct bias?

1. Compare all scores on a test.
2. Compare scores of people from different groups.
3. Compare scores of individuals from 1 group.
4. Make a test look good for non-experts.

Answer indication

Question 1

A. Because construct bias means that scores on a test can have different meanings for different groups. They cannot be properly compared with this reason.

What is a confirmatory factor analysis? - ExamTests 12

MC questions

Question 1

CFA can be used to evaluate hypotheses about the internal structure of a measurement model. But what are the steps you need to take before you can start?

I. Score negatively coded items in reverse.
II. Make clear which construct you are going to measure + already develop number of items.
III. Find participants.
IV. Already make the test yourself.

1. Only I. and II. are true
2. Only I. and III. are true
3. II only. and III. are true
4. Only I., II. and III. are true
5. Only II., III. and IV. are true
6. All statements are true
7. None of the statements is true

Question 2

If a CFA is performed, what should be established first?

Question 3

A factor load is:

1. Amount of influence of a factor on the test.
2. The extent to which an item is linked to a factor.
3. The reliability of a factor.
4. The extent to which a factor is connected to another factor.

Question 4

In the fourth step, executing the CFA with software provides information about:

1. Variations and covariations
2. Fit or suitability of model
3. Estimated parameters
4. Involved variances and covarities

Question 5

What does a significant chi-square say about the assumed model?

1. This indicates that there is a poor fit, which means that the number of dimensions according to the test does not match the actual outcome.
2. This indicates that there is a good fit, which means that the number of dimensions according to the test corresponds to the actual outcome.
3. This indicates that the model by definition had too large a sample.
4. This can mean that there is a good fit, and that the sample was good, which makes the test even more reliable.

Question 6

Which of the factor loads has the least chance of remaining in the test?

1. Factor item a = 0.82
2. Factor item b = 0.78
3. Factor item c = 0.35
4. Factor item d = 0.46
5. Factor item e = 0.65

Question 7

How many lower-order factors does the model have?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

Question 8

Which of the " lower-order" factor has / have the bad load on the " higher-order" factor?

1. -0.62
2. 0.62
3. -0.75
4. 0.75

Question 9

Are the statements true or false?

1. It is possible to use CFA to evaluate convergent and discriminant validity.
2. Convergent validity can be evaluated by applying CFA to multitrait multimethod matrices.
3. Discriminant validity cannot be evaluated by applying CFA to multitrait multimethod matrices.
4. MTMMM is not the only method for evaluating convergent validity with CFA.

Question 10

What is a standardized residual in a confirmatory factor analysis?

1. A residue with a value of 0.
2. The value of the chi-square statistic after division by the number of degrees of freedom.
3. The difference between the observed correlation and the estimated correlation.
4. The difference between the fit measure CFI and the standard fit fit NFI.

Answer indication

Question 1

D. You don't have to take the test yourself, the rest is important to have done before you start performing the CFA.

Question 2

First (after entering the data) the number of dimensions must be determined.

Question 3

B. This is the extent to which an item is associated with a factor. This factor loading is the first parameter, the second parameter is the connection between different factors.

Question 4

B. Fit or suitability of model

Question 5

A. It may indeed mean that the sample was large (options C and D), but that does not necessarily have to be the case. Moreover, a significant chi-squared means a poor fit, and therefore a poor agreement with the actual results. (B and D are not possible)

Question 6

C. The lower the factor load, the worse the reflection of the underlying factor, which means that it is most likely to disappear from the test.

Question 7

B. The second to last column is here the column with " lower- order" factors. This is the column after the highest factors for the items.

Question 8

A and B, these are the lowest values ​​(- or + does not matter).

Question 9

A and B are true. C is not true, because this method can be used for both discriminant and convergent validity. D is true; we can evaluate convergent validity by examining a test and one or more criterion variables using CFA.

Question 10

D. The difference between the fit measure CFI and the standard fit fit NFI.

MC questions

Question 1

CFA can be used to evaluate hypotheses about the internal structure of a measurement model. But what are the steps you need to take before you can start?

I. Score negatively coded items in reverse.
II. Make clear which construct you are going to measure + already develop number of items.
III. Find participants.
IV. Already make the test yourself.

1. Only I. and II. are true
2. Only I. and III. are true
3. II only. and III. are true
4. Only I., II. and III. are true
5. Only II., III. and IV. are true
6. All statements are true
7. None of the statements is true

Answer indication

Question 1

D. You don't have to take the test yourself, the rest is important to have done before you start performing the CFA.

What is the generalizability theory? - ExamTests 13

MC questions

Question 1

Which of the claims are true?

1. The generalizability theory is less useful with complex measurement strategies with multiple facets than the classical test theory.
2. The generalizabilty theory can distinguish the effects of different facets.
3. The CCT can distinguish the effects of different facets.
4. The measurement strategy can be adjusted by distinguishing the effects of the various facets.

Question 2

If there are five items per test and one observer, how many facets are there?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 5
4. 6

Question 3

There are five items in a test and the test is measured at two moments by two observers. How many facets are there in this study?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 7
5. 9
6. 20

Question 4

Are these statements true or false?

1. A D study is part of a G theory analysis.
2. Variance components are estimated in the D study.

Question 5

Which of the claims are true?

1. With a one-facet design, there are three factors that can influence variability.
2. The extent to which the targets can differ is one of the factors that could influence variability.
3. An ANOVA can be used in the D study.
4. Measurement errors cannot influence variability.

Question 6

What is the target variance if there are 4 items, MSt = 5, MSres = 1 and MSi = 2.

1. 0.75
2. 0.80
3. 1.00
4. 1.25

Question 7

There is a generalizability coefficient of 0.790. What is the noise when the signal is 50?

Question 8

Are the following statements true?

1. There is a fixed facet when one does not want to generalize outside the conditions used in the analysis.
2. With a random facet, the items are a randomly chosen sample from the total number of related items.

Question 9

Combine the decision type with the corresponding example and with the corresponding test type:

Answer indication

Question 1

B and D are true.

Question 2

A. There is 1 facet: the items. For the rest of the measurement options, there is only 1.

Question 3

C. There are 5 items (1 facet) at 2 moments (2nd facet) by 2 observers (3rd facet)

Question 4

A is true, B is not, this happens in the first step of the G theory analysis (the G study).

Question 5

D. is false, the rest is true. Measurement errors can influence variability.

Question 6

C.

Target variance if there are 4 items, MSt = 5, MSres = 1 and MSi = 2:

(MSt-MSres) / Ni. Ni = 4, (5-1) / 4 = 4/4 = 1.00.

Question 7

There is a generalizability coefficient of 0.790. What is the noise when the signal is 50? The generizability coefficient is signal / ( signal + noise ). The formula can be reversed to discover signal . 50 / (50 + x) = 0.790. → times (50 + x) → 50 = 0.790 * (50 + x). → divided by 0.79 → 63.29 = 50 + x. → - 50 → X = 13.29. Noise is 13.29.

Question 8

Both A and B are true.

Question 9

1-A-II.

2-B-I.

Relative decisions are about relatively assessed scores and are norm- referenced (e.g., best 20%). Absolute decisions are about a cut-off score that you must have to have achieved something, this is criterion-referenced.

MC questions

Question 1

Which of the claims are true?

1. The generalizability theory is less useful with complex measurement strategies with multiple facets than the classical test theory.
2. The generalizabilty theory can distinguish the effects of different facets.
3. The CCT can distinguish the effects of different facets.
4. The measurement strategy can be adjusted by distinguishing the effects of the various facets.

Answer indication

Question 1

B and D are true.

What is the Item Response Theory (IRT) and which models are there? - ExamTests 14

MC questions

Question 1

Which of these statements are not true?

1. IRT is an alternative to KTT.
2. IRT is less complex than KTT.
3. The IRT emphasizes the fact that the response of an individual is influenced by the individual (traits) and the item (difficulty level).
4. With IRT, difficulty can also be seen as how easily someone can agree with a statement.

Question 2

For which demand is probably an higher traitlevel required when the trait is about 'proficiency in spelling'?

1. Spelling the word: spoon.
2. Spelling the word: conscientiously.
3. Neither: the difficulty level has anything to do with the trait level.

Question 3

Are the statements true or false?

1. If someone has an item with difficulty level 1, someone with trait level 1 will have a 50% chance of successfully completing the item.
2. If an item has difficulty level -1, someone with trait level 0 has little chance of completing the item properly.
3. For an item with difficulty level 0, someone with level 1 trait will have a more than 50% chance of correctly answering the item.

Question 4

There is a negative discrimination value of the item. What does this mean for the chance to answer an item correctly when there is an high trait level?

1. That chance is high because there is a high trait level.
2. That chance is low because it is probably an item with an even higher level of difficulty.
3. That chance is high because this item must be easy because the trait level is high.
4. That chance is low because a negative discrimination value means that high trait scores result in a smaller chance to answer the item correctly.

Question 5

Which discrimination value has the most validity?

1. With discrimination value 0.8
2. With discrimination value 0
3. With discrimination value -That chance is low because a negative discrimination value means that high trait scores result in a smaller chance to answer the item correctly.0.8
4. With discrimination value 0.5

Question 6

The Rasch model looks at:

(possibly several correct answers)

1. The chance of a correct answer
2. The difficulty level of an item
3. The trait level of the test subject
4. The average trait level

Question 7

The difference between the Rasch model and the two-parameter logistic model is:

1. Whether or not to take the discrimination parameter of the item into account.
2. Whether or not to take the confidence interval into account.
3. Whether or not to take the difficulty of the item into account.
4. None of the above answers is correct.

Question 8

Enter the formula of the Rasch model: Trait level = 2, Item difficulty = 1.5. What is the chance of a correct answer?

1. 0.334
2. 0.378
3. 0.447
4. 0.622

Question 9

What is the estimated trait level if the proportion of correctly answered items from the respondent is 0.7?

1. -0.857
2. 0.153
3. 0.857
4. 6.712

Question 10

Which of the following examples is NOT a named application of IRT?

1. Evaluate psychometric properties items and tests.
2. Comparing multiple facets of a measurement strategy.
3. Analyzing Person Fit.
4. Computerized adaptive testing.

Question 11

A test consisting of four items measures a certain skill. The item-characteristic curves of the items are given.

Which item has the largest discrimination parameter?

1. Item 1
2. Item 2
3. Item 3
4. Item 4

Question 12

A test consisting of three items measures a certain skill. The item-characteristic curves of the items are given.

What is the most likely score pattern (order item 1, item 2, item 3, where 1 = right and 0 = wrong) for a person with a skill of θ = 6?

1. 0.1.0
2. 1.0
3. 1.0
4. 1.1.0

Answer indication

Question 1

B is not true; IRT is more complex than KTT.

Question 2

B. Assuming that this has an higher degree of difficulty than the assignment for answer A.

Question 3

A is true, B is not true; more chance than 50%, C is true.

Question 4

D. That chance is low because a negative discrimination value means that high trait scores result in a smaller chance to answer the item correctly.

Question 5

A, because that is the highest positive score (only positive scores confirm validity) negative indicate correct inconsistency between trait level and chance of correct answering, this indicates more about poor validity.

Question 6

A. This is the out1.1.0come of the model and b + c: which is included in the calculation.

Question 7

A. The discrimination parameter of the item is the difference between the two formulas, they both take the trait level and difficulty of the item into account.

Question 8

D.

Trait level is Ө s, Ө s = 2. Item difficulty is β i, β i = 1.5.

P (Xis = 1 | Ө s, β i) = (e ^ ( Ө s - β i) / (1 + e ^ ( Ө s - β i)) P (Xis = 1 | Ө s, β i) = e ^ (2-1.5) / 1 + e ^ (2-1.5) P (Xis = 1 | Ө s, β i) = e ^ (0.5) / 1 + e ^ (0.5 ) P (X 18 = 1 | Ө s, β i) = 1.6487 / 2.6487 = 0.622

Question 9

C.

Proportion correctly answered item of the respondent = PS. PS = 0.7.

Ө s = LN (PS / 1-PS).

Ө s = LN (0.7 / 0.3) = LN (2.333) = 0.897.

Question 10

B. this is a function of the G theory not of IRT.

Question 11

A. Item 1

Question 12

D. 1.1.0

MC questions

Question 1

Which of these statements are not true?

1. IRT is an alternative to KTT.
2. IRT is less complex than KTT.
3. The IRT emphasizes the fact that the response of an individual is influenced by the individual (traits) and the item (difficulty level).
4. With IRT, difficulty can also be seen as how easily someone can agree with a statement.

Answer indication

Question 1

B is not true; IRT is more complex than KTT.