How has clinical neuropsychology evolved? - ExamTests 1

Questions

Question 1

What does cell theory mean?

1. Humans have a higher-order soul that is located in three cells (ventricles) of the brain.
2. Areas in the brain communicate through cells with long spurs, also called neurons.
3. The brain consists of different cells (areas) that all have their own function, such as the subcortical cell for vigilance and attention.

Question 2

In what way did Franz Joseph Gall test his views?

1. He conducted clinical interviews with patients to assess both their behaviour and potential head injuries.
2. He believed that people learn everything (associationism) and looked at brain damage per individual, without drawing general conclusions about brain functions.
3. He investigated patients post-mortem, and related brain damage to the behaviour they exhibited.
4. By feeling on the head where the lump is located, one should be able to determine the regions on the cortex at which different functions are located.

Question 3

Why did Luria offer a solution to the holistic problem, that balanced between holistic and localisationist views?

1. He thought that a behavioural disorder can never be directly related to the intactness of specific areas, but at the same time he found that an accurate analysis can show a disturbed factor.
2. The idea that the brain consists of different zones put the localisationists out of play.
3. He saw the brain as a system in which each sub-area makes its own contribution to a general function, whereby the theory was holistic, but also connected to the localisationists.
4. The secondary zones, for multimodal integration, were the alternative to localisation that the holists had not yet found.

Question 4

Which of the following functions are present in computer models that simulate cognitive functions, but that are not common with cognitive functions in the brain?

1. If buttons are damaged, the entire function will not be lost, but part of the information will be lost.
2. A small part of the information can activate an entire memory track.
3. Learning by trial and error.
4. The nodes communicate with each other through specific electrical reactions that occur after a certain value is exceeded.

Answer indication Questions

Question 1

A. Humans have a higher-order soul that is located in three cells (ventricles) of the brain.

Question 2

C. He investigated patients post-mortem, and related brain damage to the behaviour they exhibited.

Question 3

A. He thought that a behavioural disorder can never be directly related to the intactness of specific areas, but at the same time he found that an accurate analysis can show a disturbed factor.

Question 4

D. The nodes communicate with each other through specific electrical reactions that occur after a certain value is exceeded.

How does neuropsychology work in practice? - ExamTests 2

Questions

Question 1

What does the diagnostic cycle consist of?

1. Complaints analysis, problem analysis, diagnosis, treatment.
2. Complaints analysis, problem analysis, diagnosis, indication for treatment.
3. Observation, interpretation, treatment.
4. Case history, test taking, test interpretation, assessment.

Question 2

In which of the following situations does an interview with the informant provide the most information?

1. Els (27) moved last year, she has got a new job and her mother is seriously ill. Since a few weeks she is not able to pay attention to her work and she has fatigue problems.
2. Henk (54) goes to a psychologist because of problems with his wife. According to her, he has changed a lot lately: he doesn't listen to her problems, eats a lot of unhealthy food and seems irritated quickly. Henk himself does not agree with his wife and thinks nothing is wrong.
3. A few months ago, Peter (21) was involved in a car accident. Since then he doesn't like to get in the car anymore. Sometimes he has panic attacks.
4. Vivian (37) and her husband have filed for divorce. She notices that her mood has changed: she is often sad, cries a lot and wonders how to proceed if she is on her own.

Question 3

Which question is not related to validity?

1. To what extent does the score on number series really say something about the working memory?
2. Does a patient with an extremely low score on reaction time suffer from cognitive impairment in her daily life?
3. Does the test measure what it appears to measure at first sight?
4. To what extent are the results of a test the same if they are collected at another time?

Question 4

Mr. Jones (87) gets a lower score on the Stroop test than expected. Afterwards he tells that he was very nervous and had barely slept the night before. In this case we speak of

1. disturbance factors.
2. low ecological validity.
3. low Cohen's kappa.
4. inadequate observation by the test leader.

Answer indication

Question 1

B. Complaints analysis, problem analysis, diagnosis, indication for treatment.

Question 2

B. Henk (54) goes to a psychologist because of problems with his wife. According to her, he has changed a lot lately: he doesn't listen to her problems, eats a lot of unhealthy food and seems irritated quickly. Henk himself does not agree with his wife and thinks nothing is wrong.

Question 3

D. To what extent are the results of a test the same if they are collected at another time?

Question 4

A. disturbance factors.

What is the scientific approach to neuropsychology? - ExamTests 3

Questions

Question 1

What is the difference between clinical neuropsychological examination and fundamental research?

1. Basic research is done by scientists and clinical neuropsychological research is not.
2. Clinical neuropsychological assessment looks at patients; fundamental research only deals with underlying theories.
3. Fundamental research is concerned with differential diagnosis; clinical neuropsychological assessment with answering questions.
4. Clinical neuropsychological research looks at the impairments and the course of a disorder; fundamental research is concerned with understanding the disorder and related brain structures.

Question 2

In which of the following research situations is longitudinal research involved?

1. 100 parents of children with epilepsy are approached via the hospital. If the parents give permission for the assessment, the child is asked every five years to fill in a questionnaire and there is made an fMRI scan. After ten of these measurements, so fifty years later, the data is analyzed.
2. Patient FD is being examined because of serious psychoses after an accident at work. He has to complete several questionnaires and a scan of his brain is made.
3. Researchers are conducting a major investigation into autism. There are five age groups: 10-19, 20-29, 30-39, 40-49 and 50+. 10 men and 10 women per age group are approached for a study that lasts about one day.
4. Researchers want to know if a drug for depression also works when someone is diagnosed with ADHD. Their research consists of four groups: one group with ADHD and the drug, one group with ADHD and a placebo, one group without ADHD and with the drug and one group without ADHD and with placebo. After the intervention, the depression scores of the different groups are compared.

Question 3

Which of the following research situations is a single-case study?

1. 100 parents of children with epilepsy are approached via the hospital. If the parents give permission for the assessment, the child is asked every five years to fill in a questionnaire and there is made an fMRI scan. After ten of these measurements, so fifty years later, the data is analyzed.
2. Patient FD is being examined because of serious psychoses after an accident at work. He has to complete several questionnaires and a scan of his brain is made.
3. Researchers are conducting a major investigation into autism. There are five age groups: 10-19, 20-29, 30-39, 40-49 and 50+. 10 men and 10 women per age group are approached for a study that lasts about one day.
4. Researchers want to know if a drug for depression also works when someone is diagnosed with ADHD. Their research consists of four groups: one group with ADHD and the drug, one group with ADHD and a placebo, one group without ADHD and with the drug and one group without ADHD and with placebo. After the intervention, the depression scores of the different groups are compared.

Question 4

What is a reason to use a control test?

1. To see if there is a difference between the experimental group and the control group.
2. To see if the usual test yields a different average score than the control test.
3. To see if there is a specific effect on function X after treatment.
4. To see if there is no placebo effect.

Question 5

There is a test-retest effect when ...

1. ... the patient scores better on a test due to familiarity with the instructions and the situation.
2. ... the patient scores better on a test when he / she practiced at home.
3. ... the test measures slightly differently with a second patient than with the first patient.
4. ... the same patient gets a completely different score, when conducting the same test for the second time.

Answer indication

Question 1

D. Clinical neuropsychological research looks at the impairments and the course of a disorder; fundamental research is concerned with understanding the disorder and related brain structures.

Question 2

A. 100 parents of children with epilepsy are approached via the hospital. If the parents give permission for the assessment, the child is asked every five years to fill in a questionnaire and there is made an fMRI scan. After ten of these measurements, so fifty years later, the data is analyzed.

Question 3

B. Researchers are conducting a major investigation into autism. There are five age groups: 10-19, 20-29, 30-39, 40-49 and 50+. 10 men and 10 women per age group are approached for a study that lasts about one day.

Question 4

C. To see if there is a specific effect on function X after treatment.

Question 5

A. ... the same patient gets a completely different score, when conducting the same test for the second time.

How can the brain be mapped? - ExamTests 4

Questions

Question 1

Which statement about a CT scan is correct?

1. The difference between white and gray matter can be clearly seen on the image of a CT scan.
2. A CT scan works through the transmission of X-rays.
3. A CT scan has the advantage that it provides a higher resolution than an MRI scan.
4. A CT scan results in less carcinogenic radiation than an MRI scan.

Question 2

How does functional imaging differ from structural imaging?

1. Functional imaging can be used in mental disorders; structural imaging can be used for brain damage caused by strokes or accidents.
2. Functional imaging can be used for brain damage caused by strokes or accidents; structural imaging can be used in mental disorders.
3. Functional imaging does not show which areas are active, but structural imaging does.
4. Functional imaging shows which areas are active, structural imaging not.

Question 3

Which statement about fMRI is true?

1. With fMRI, hemoglobin is used as a natural contrast fluid.
2. fMRI is quite harmful.
3. With fMRI, water is made radioactive, after which the use of oxygen can be mapped.
4. fMRI delivers images with a very good temporal resolution.

Answer indication

Question 1

B. A CT scan works through the transmission of X-rays.

Question 2

D. Functional imaging shows which areas are active, structural imaging not.

Question 3

A. With fMRI, hemoglobin is used as a natural contrast fluid.

How does the treatment and recovery work? - ExamTests 5

Questions

Question 1

Patient P. has brain damage as a result of a collision. For a while his cognitive functioning seems to improve, but after a year this progress stops. P., however, learns to cope better with his reduced ability to pay attention, and his forgetfulness. Learning to handle this better is also called:

1. Positive residual symptoms.
2. Negative residual symptoms.
3. Recovery at a neurological level.
4. The restorative flow of rehabilitation.

Question 2

What is the term for the lack of progress that patient P. experiences (previous question)?

1. Suboptimal coping.
2. Neurological end state.
3. Plasticity.
4. Growing into deficit.

Question 3

Which statement about plasticity is not true?

1. Plasticity is a lifelong process.
2. The degree of plasticity depends on the stage of development.
3. Research supports the Kennard principle: the prognosis after brain damage at a young age is better than the prognosis after brain damage at a later age.
4. Research supports the double hazard hypothesis: younger children who suffer serious injuries have the worst prognosis.

Question 4

What does state dependent learning mean?

1. That learning depends on the emotional state of a patient.
2. That learning depends on the degree of brain damage of a patient.
3. That learning depends on the context in which the learning takes place.
4. That learning is impossible without patient motivation.

Question 5

Which statement about training for brain damage is true?

1. Much evidence has been found for the effectiveness of training courses that fall under the restorative model.
2. Skills training is an example of training that belongs to the compensatory model.
3. In psychoeducation, a patient explains experiences to peers in order to increase social support.
4. Function training is an example of a training that belongs to the compensatory model.

Answer indication

Question 1

A. Positive residual symptoms.

Question 2

B. Neurological end state.

Question 3

C. Research supports the Kennard principle: the prognosis after brain damage at a young age is better than the prognosis after brain damage at a later age.

Question 4

C. That learning depends on the context in which the learning takes place.

Question 5

B. Skills training is an example of training that belongs to the compensatory model.

What is visual perception? - ExamTests 6

Questions

Question 1

Which statement about processing sensory information is incorrect?

1. All primary sensory areas are modality specific.
2. The primary visual cortex is at the center of the occipital lobe.
3. In the tertiary areas there is a link with other sensory information.
4. Face recognition falls under the primary visual area (V1).

Question 2

What is the difference between the where route and the what route?

1. The where route is in the occipito-parietal area; the what-route is in the occipito-temporal region.
2. The where route focuses primarily on where a stimulus is located in the visual field; the what route focuses primarily on how that stimulus moves.
3. The where route only processes basic information; the what route serves to process more complex information.
4. The where route is involved in visually-spatial processing and location of objects; The what route is involved in the recognition of objects and the processing of color, shape and texture.

Question 3

Patient Q. only sees pale tones. A scan shows that this is the result of a lesion. What does Q. probably have?

1. Prosopagnosia.
2. Akinetopsia.
3. Achromatopsia.
4. An apperceptive agnosia.

Question 4

Which statement about prosopagnosia is not true?

1. People with prosopagnosia cannot recognize the faces of others, but the image of their own face in the mirror always remains intact.
2. Prosopagnosia is often the result of a bilateral lesion in the occipital-temporal region.
3. The fusiform face area plays an important role in prosopagnosia.
4. Prosopagnosia is a higher-order visual disorder.

Question 5

How does the recognition of faces work out, according to the Bruce and Young model?

1. After activating the person identity node (PIN), the face recognition unit (FRU) is activated, after which the person's name can be retrieved.
2. After activating the face recognition unit (FRU), the person identity node (PIN) is activated, after which the person's name can be retrieved.
3. After activating the person identity node (PIN), the person's name is retrieved, after which the face recognition unit (FRU) can be activated.
4. After activating the face recognition unit (FRU), the name of the person is retrieved, after which the person identity node (PIN) can be activated.

Answer indication

Question 1

C. In the tertiary areas there is a link with other sensory information.

Question 2

D. The where route is involved in visually-spatial processing and location of objects; The what route is involved in the recognition of objects and the processing of color, shape and texture.

Question 3

C. Achromatopsia.

Question 4

A. People with prosopagnosia cannot recognize the faces of others, but the image of their own face in the mirror always remains intact.

Question 5

B. After activating the face recognition unit (FRU), the person identity node (PIN) is activated, after which the person's name can be retrieved.

What is spatial cognition? - ExamTests 7

Questions

Question 1

What sub-domains does spatial memory consist of?

1. Learning and remembering routes, dynamic spatial information and the memory for object-locations.
2. Landmarks, allocentric knowledge and self-centered knowledge.
3. The spatial working memory, allocentric knowledge and self-centered knowledge
4. Learning and remembering routes, the spatial working memory and the memory for object-locations.

Question 2

Patient L. suffers from unilateral neglect due to damage in the left hemisphere. He is instructed to draw a house. What does L. draw?

1. L. draws something completely different than a house.
2. L. only draws one half of the house.
3. L. only draws the top of the house.
4. L. draws a house, but draws the door and the windows outside the house.

Question 3

On a task, L. (question 2) can recognise a figure when just one is offered. However, when several figures are presented, he no longer notices. What's this called?

1. Extinction.
2. Partial neglect.
3. Bilateral neglect.
4. Attention neglect.

Question 4

Patient F. can find the way to her home well, but since she has a brain lesion she has been unable to remember the route to the book club, of which she has recently become a member. F. possibly suffers from ... :

1. self-centered disorientation.
2. Bálint-Holmes syndrome.
3. anterograde disorientation.
4. neglect.

Question 5

Which of the following statements is not true for Bálint-Holmes syndrome?

1. For patients, the world appears to be a chaotic collection of single objects.
2. There is simultanagnosia, oculomotor apraxia and optical ataxia.
3. Despite the limitation, patients are able to move around the world.
4. There is bilateral damage to the occipito-parietal area.

Answer indication

Question 1

D. Learning and remembering routes, the spatial working memory and the memory for object-locations.

Question 2

B. L. only draws one half of the house.

Question 3

A.- Extinction.

Question 4

C. anterograde disorientation.

Question 5

C. Despite the limitation, patients are able to move around the world.

How does memory work? - ExamTests 8

Questions

Question 1

Which of the following is not a part of the long-term memory (LTM)?

1. The declarative memory.
2. The implicit memory.
3. The phonological loop.
4. The semantic memory.

Question 2

Patient F. (78) has difficulty recalling events, but when she sits down at a piano, she can still play pieces of music she learned in her childhood. Which part of her memory is not damaged?

1. The implicit memory.
2. The explicit memory.
3. The declarative memory.
4. The working memory.

Question 3

Which three factors determine how well information can be remembered later?

1. How well the information is stored, cues and the type of test.
2. Cues, the degree of transfer and the type of test.
3. Cues, the retention interval and the degree of transfer.
4. How well the information is stored, the retention interval and the type of test.

Question 4

Which of the processes below are part of the non-declarative long-term memory?

1. Remembering a word list.
2. The faster recognition of a word when a concept related to the word just has been shown.
3. Being able to imagine the layout of your house.
4. Remembering a special event.

Question 5

When does the amnestic syndrome occur?

1. If the patient has both anterograde and retrograde amnesia.
2. If the patient has anterograde amnesia.
3. If the patient has retrograde amnesia.
4. If there is abnormally quick forgetting.

Question 6

Which statement about transient global amnesia (TGA) is true?

1. Amnesia does not get better in TGA; the patient always keeps having memory problems.
2. The etiology of TGA is very clear.
3. Sometimes epilepsy is the cause of TGA. We then speak of a transient epileptic amnesia (TEA).
4. Psychiatric disorders such as depression or schizophrenia can never be the cause of TGA.

Answer indication

Question 1

C. The phonological loop.

Question 2

A. The implicit memory.

Question 3

D. How well the information is stored, the retention interval and the type of test.

Question 4

B. The faster recognition of a word when a concept related to the word just has been shown.

Question 5

A. If the patient has both anterograde and retrograde amnesia.

Question 6

C. Sometimes epilepsy is the cause of TGA. We then speak of a transient epileptic amnesia (TEA).

How is language viewed from neuropsychology perspective? - ExamTests 9

Questions

Question 1

What information about words can be found in the mental lexicon?

1. Attributes related to meaning, form, and phonetic attributes.
2. Attributes related to meaning, grammatical attributes, and characteristics relating to form.
3. Similarities between words, connections between words and differences between words.
4. Similarities between words, grammatical properties and information about sentence structure.

Question 2

Patient A. has a severe form of aphasia. The neuropsychologist asks her various questions and takes a number of tests, but she only answers "I don't know" and "how do you say that". What do you call this form of automatic speech?

1. Echolalia.
2. Serial speech.
3. Stereotype.
4. Perseveration.

Question 3

Patient U. has a severe form of aphasia. He wants to say that his wife came to visit yesterday and he got cookies. He does this as follows: "Jessie... visit ... yesterday ... I .... get a cake ..." What is this form of sentence construction problem called?

1. Agrammatism.
2. Paragrammatism.
3. Pseudogrammatism.
4. Antigrammatism.

Question 4

In what case do we speak of Broca's aphasia?

1. If the speech is fluent, but the concept of language is impaired.
2. If the concept of language is intact, but speech and articulation are impaired.
3. If the biggest problem is that words cannot be repeated.
4. If speech, language comprehension and repetition are impaired.

Question 5

Tests show that patient F. has an intact concept of language. There is no paragrammatism, there are no paraphasias, a slowed rate of speech or agrammatism. When F. talks, she clearly has serious problems finding words. What form of aphasia does F. probably have?

1. Broca's aphasia.
2. Wernicke's aphasia.
3. Transcortical aphasia.
4. Amnestic aphasia.

Question 6

What is the difference between dyspraxia and dysarthria?

1. In dyspraxia, something goes wrong when programming articulating organs; in dysarthria there is reduced control over the muscles used for articulation.
2. In dyspraxia patients have difficulty writing; patients with dysarthria have difficulty reading.
3. In dyspraxia patients have difficulty with longer words; in dysarthria patients have difficulty with consonant clusters.
4. In dyspraxia patients have brain damage or damage to the central nervous system; in dysarthria patients have muscle damage.

Answer indication

Question 1

B. Attributes related to meaning, grammatical attributes, and characteristics relating to form.

Question 2

C. Stereotype.

Question 3

A. Agrammatism.

Question 4

B. If the concept of language is intact, but speech and articulation are impaired.

Question 5

D. Amnestic aphasia.

Question 6

A. In dyspraxia, something goes wrong when programming articulating organs; in dysarthria there is reduced control over the muscles used for articulation.

How are attention and executive functions structured? - ExamTests 10

Questions

Question 1

During a lecture, Lisa's attention is suddenly caught by a buzzing sound to her right. What do we call this form of attention and what kind of control is it?

1. Active form; bottom-up control.
2. Active form; top-down control.
3. Passive form; bottom-up control.
4. Passive form; top-down control.

Question 2

Which statement about 'multitasking' is true?

1. Multitasking is possible because the brain has several areas of attention that can focus on different tasks.
2. Multitasking is possible, but only for small tasks that do not demand too much from the executive system.
3. Multitasking is impossible, instead all tasks are connected to each other, which makes efficient information processing possible.
4. Multitasking is impossible, instead the attention shifts very quickly from one task to another.

Question 3

What is the purpose of the posterior attention network in the neuroanatomical model of attention by Posner and Petersen?

1. Orientation.
2. Vigilance.
3. Target detection.
4. Active attention.

Question 4

How does Norman and Shallice's mental scheme theory determine which scheme wins during competition selection?

1. That depends on the power of a schedule.
2. That depends on the conflict between situational behaviour and habitual behaviour
3. That depends on the supervisory attention system.
4. That depends on the degree of mental flexibility.

Question 5

What is lateral modulation in the mental schema theory of Norman and Shallice?

1. A conscious choice must be made about which scheme is applicable in the situation.
2. One scheme can suppress or facilitate the other scheme.
3. Determining which schedule wins.
4. The excitability of schemes depends on several factors.

Answer indication

Question 1

C. passive form; bottom-up control.

Question 2

D. Multitasking is impossible, instead the attention shifts very quickly from one task to another.

Question 3

A. Orientation.

Question 4

A. That depends on the power of a schedule.

Question 5

B. One scheme can suppress or facilitate the other scheme.

What are the working mechanisms of emotion and social cognition? - ExamTests 11

Questions

Question 1

Which of the emtions below is not a primary emotion?

1. Anger.
2. Surprise.
3. Disgust.
4. Rejection.

Question 2

What is the difference between the fast route and the slow route of processing in the LeDoux's two-route model?

1. With the fast route, information goes directly to the amygdala via the thalamus; for the slow route, the information goes through the thalamus to the prefrontal cortex and then to the amygdala.
2. The fast route goes via white matter; the slow route via gray matter.
3. The fast route makes learning and remembering information possible; the slow makes learning and remembering impossible.
4. The fast route is used for threatening information; the slow route when processing emotions.

Question 3

Which statement is true about Theory of Mind (ToM)?

1. After developing a first-order belief, children can relatively easily understand a faux-pas situation.
2. The orbitofrontal cortex in particular is involved in Theory of Mind.
3. First order beliefs develop around the third year of life.
4. Second order beliefs develop around the fifth year of life.

Question 4

While experiencing an unpleasant situation, patient W. systematically places her negative feelings in the background. What is this form of emotion regulation called?

1. Active revaluation.
2. Passive revaluation.
3. Affective suppression.
4. Passive suppression.

Question 5

What is a characteristic of patients who have a disorder in the 'reaction' stage of the social information processing system?

1. Patients with dementia or Huntington do not properly recognize emotional facial expressions and patients with autism or schizophrenia do not recognize emotion in the voice.
2. Patients have trouble changing or stopping behavior.
3. Patients have difficulty with ToM.
4. Patients have difficulty with motor skills.

Answer indication

Question 1

D.- Rejection.

Question 2

A. With the fast route, information goes directly to the amygdala via the thalamus; for the slow route, the information goes through the thalamus to the prefrontal cortex and then to the amygdala.

Question 3

C. First order beliefs develop around the third year of life.

Question 4

C. Affective suppression.

Question 5

B. Patients have trouble changing or stopping behavior.

How do motor control and action work? - ExamTests 12

Questions

Question 1

What is propriocepsis?

1. The observation of objects in space.
2. Editing information related to the environment in our working memory.
3. The system that activates neurons to control our movements.
4. The system through which we become aware of our posture and the position of our body parts in space.

Question 2

Which statement about cerebral palsy (CP) is correct?

1. There is just one form of CP.
2. CP develops after brain damage at a later age.
3. Patients with CP have many problems with everyday motor skills.
4. CP is, compared to other motor disorders such as developmental coordination disorder, not so serious.

Question 3

What is the difference between ideomotor apraxia and ideational apraxia?

1. In ideomotor apraxia the patient cannot make movements based on instruction or imitation; in ideational apraxia the patient cannot make sequences of motion.
2. In ideomotor apraxia, the patient cannot make sequences of motion; in ideational apraxia the patient cannot make movements based on instruction or imitation.
3. With ideomotor apraxia the patient cannot perform actions on movement; in ideational apraxia the patient cannot use objects functionally.
4. With ideomotor apraxia the patient cannot use objects functionally; in ideational apraxia the patient cannot perform any movement action.

Question 4

What are the core symptoms of posterior alien hand syndrome?

1. A feeling of alienation, compulsive movements, and hostile movements.
2. Forced tactile exploration and the grasp reflex.
3. Forced tactile exploration, less complex movements, and the grasp reflex.
4. A feeling of alienation, less complex movements, and hostile movements.

Answer indication

Question 1

D. The system through which we become aware of our posture and the position of our body parts in space.

Question 2

C. Patients with CP have many problems with everyday motor skills.

Question 3

A. In ideomotor apraxia the patient cannot make movements based on instruction or imitation; in ideational apraxia the patient cannot make sequences of motion.

Question 4

D. A feeling of alienation, less complex movements, and hostile movements.

What is intelligence? - ExamTests 13

Questions

Question 1

Which statement about intelligence is true?

1. Galton came up with the g factor.
2. Since inventing the g-factor, there has been agreement that intelligence consists of one factor.
3. With the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test, Binet laid the foundation for intelligence testing.
4. The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scales have been introduced as a culture-independent test.

Question 2

What is the Flynn effect?

1. The phenomenon that people become more intelligent every year.
2. The phenomenon that the scores on IQ tests increase every year by an average of five points.
3. The phenomenon that our grandfathers and grandmothers scored higher on IQ testing than we do.
4. The phenomenon that IQ, in contrast to what was initially thought, seems to fluctuate greatly per generation.

Question 3

Which statement about the relationship between brain and intelligence is not true?

1. In higher animal species, the brain is larger than the body.
2. The neural efficiency hypothesis states that intelligent people's brains are less activated for conducting a given task due to higher efficiency.
3. Intelligence level seems to be independent of the quality of nerve bundles.
4. With a DTI scan, researchers can determine how good the "cabling" is in our brains.

Answer indication

Question 1

C. With the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test, Binet laid the foundation for intelligence testing.

Question 2

B. The phenomenon that the scores on IQ tests increase every year by an average of five points.

Question 3

C. Intelligence level seems to be independent of the quality of nerve bundles.

What are cerebrovascular diseases? - ExamTests 14

Questions

Question 1

Which statement about the difference between a cerebral infarction and a hemorrhage is not true?

1. To determine whether someone experiences a cerebral infarction, it is best to use a CT; a brain haemorrhage is best visible on an MRI.
2. In the case of a cerebral infarction, there is an obstruction of a blood vessel; in the case of a brain haemorrhage, a blood vessel is ruptured at a weak spot.
3. In the case of a cerebral infarction someone remains conscious; in the case of a brain haemorrhage consciousness decreases.
4. In eight out of ten cases someone experiences a cerebral infarction; in two out of ten cases there is a brain haemorrhage.

Question 2

What is not a cause of an obstruction?

1. Coagulated blood platelets or fragments of calcifications in the vascular wall of the blood vessels.
2. Stenosis in the smaller and deep perforating arterioles.
3. Inadequate blood flow to the brain.
4. An error in controlling the heart rhythm.

Question 3

What is the difference between an intracerebral haemorrhage and a lobar bleeding?

1. An intracerebral haemorrhage occurs in the space between the meninges; lobar hemorrhage in the brain.
2. Intracerebral haemorrhage is often caused by prolonged hypertension; lobar bleeding occurs due to degenerative vascular disease.
3. An intracerebral haemorrhage is only characterized by a blocked blood vessel only; lobar bleeding due to blocking and damage to a blood vessel.
4. There is no difference, the terms are used interchangeably.

Question 4

Which statement about vascular dementia is not true?

1. Vascular dementia is usually caused by multiple infarctions in multiple places in the brain.
2. Vascular dementia is diagnosed in the majority of all stroke patients after the incident.
3. In the case of vascular dementia, someone experiences psychomotor slowness.
4. In the case of vascular dementia there are impairments in executive functions.

Answer indication

Question 1

A. To determine whether someone experiences a cerebral infarction, it is best to use a CT; a brain haemorrhage is best visible on an MRI.

Question 2

D. An error in controlling the heart rhythm.

Question 3

B. Intracerebral haemorrhage is often caused by prolonged hypertension; lobar bleeding occurs due to degenerative vascular disease.

Question 4

B. Vascular dementia is diagnosed in the majority of all stroke patients after the incident.

What is traumatic brain injury? - ExamTests 15

Questions

Question 1

Which statement about loss of consciousness and traumatic brain injury (TBI) is not true?

1. The severity of the loss of consciousness provides information about the severity of the injury.
2. The duration of the loss of consciousness provides information about the severity of the injury.
3. Even if there is no loss of consciousness, one can speak of traumatic brain injury.
4. If there is retrograde amnesia immediately after the onset of consciousness, it diminishes over time.

Question 2

What is are primary brain injuries?

1. Injuries that are caused by forces that act on the skull.
2. Injuries that are caused by complications, which are located intracranially.
3. Injuries that are caused by complications that are extracranial.
4. Injuries to the primary brain areas.

Question 3

Which of the following is the least characteristic neuropsychological consequence of a moderate to severe ABI?

1. Mental slowness.
2. Aphasia.
3. Memory disorders.
4. Problems in executive functioning.

Question 4

What is true about the neuropsychological consequences of a mild ABI?

1. The complaints almost never disappear within a year.
2. In the acute phase, the main complaints are related to memory, attention and information processing.
3. The severity of the neuropsychological consequences after an ABI mainly depend on the duration of the PTA.
4. Patients with mild ABI form a homogeneous group with approximately the same course of complaints.

Question 5

When do we speak of a post-commotion syndrome?

1. If patients report severe consequences due to their injury, that are unlikely.
2. If patients are obsessed with the potential serious consequences of their injury.
3. If patients consciously simulate their complaints.
4. If the symptoms persist longer than usual after a mild TBI.

Question 6

What is not true about whiplash-associated disorders?

1. They relate to the movement of the head if the car in which one is travelling is hit from behind.
2. There is extension and then flexion.
3. There is a mild brain injury.
4. Patients who continue having symptoms suffer from post-whiplash syndrome.

Answer indication

Question 1

C. Even if there is no loss of consciousness, one can speak of traumatic brain injury.

Question 2

A. Injuries that are caused by forces that act on the skull.

Question 3

B. Aphasia.

Question 4

B. In the acute phase, the main complaints are related to memory, attention and information processing.

Question 5

D. If the symptoms persist longer than usual after a mild TBI.

Question 6

C. There is a mild brain injury.

What is epilepsy? - ExamTests 16

Questions

Question 1

Within which categories can behavioural changes manifest themselves?

1. Involuntary movements, changes in mood and behavioural changes.
2. Involuntary movements, perceptual changes, behavioural changes and changes in consciousness.
3. Changes in thoughts and behaviour.
4. Changes in attention, mood, behaviour, and thought.

Question 2

What is a tonic-clonic seizure?

1. A seizure in which the patient loses consciousness for a few minutes, starting with contraction of muscles and ending in rhythmic contraction.
2. A seizure without loss of consciousness.
3. A seizure that mainly occurs in childhood, characterized by short periods (ten seconds) of loss of consciousness.
4. A seizure in which the patient only experiences long periods of loss of consciousness.

Question 3

What is a simple partial seizure?

1. A seizure in which the patient loses consciousness for a few minutes, starting with contraction of muscles and ending in rhythmic contraction
2. A seizure without loss of consciousness
3. A seizure that mainly occurs in childhood, characterized by short periods (ten seconds) of loss of consciousness.
4. A seizure in which the patient only experiences long periods of loss of consciousness.

Question 4

When do we speak of a cryptogenic epilepsy?

1. If there is a clear neurological cause of the epilepsy.
2. If there is no clear neurological cause of the epilepsy.
3. If there is a strong suspicion of a neurological cause, that has not been established yet.
4. If the seizures are caused by a cellular defect.

Question 5

What consequences are specific to a symptomatic epilepsy?

1. Impairments in attention, speed of information processing, and visual-spatial functions
2. Problems in executive functioning.
3. Problems in social cognition.
4. Memory impairments.

Answer indication

Question 1

B. Involuntary movements, perceptual changes, behavioural changes and changes in consciousness.

Question 2

A. A seizure in which the patient loses consciousness for a few minutes, starting with contraction of muscles and ending in rhythmic contraction.

Question 3

B. A seizure without loss of consciousness

Question 4

C. If there is a strong suspicion of a neurological cause, that has not been established yet.

Question 5

D. Memory impairments.

What are intracranial and extracranial tumours? - ExamTests 17

Questions

Question 1

What is a primary brain tumour?

1. An extracranial tumour.

2. A tumour that originates from the brain tissue, the cerebral nerves, the pituitary gland or the meninges.

3. Metastasis of a tumour.

4. A malignant tumour.

Question 2

What is true related to cognitive impairment in brain tumours?

1. Cognitive impairments arise only through the brain tumour itself or they are caused by radiotherapy.
2. Cognitive impairments are the most important characteristic of rare tumours.
3. In the case of a fast-growing tumour, an epileptic seizure is the first symptom.
4. After removal of a brain tumour, all cognitive complaints disappear.

Question 3

What is not true about mood disorders and brain tumours?

1. The location of the brain tumour influences the degree of anxiety and depressive feelings experienced.
2. 20 to 30% of patients also have mood complaints in the long term.
3. Fatigue is one of the most reported complaints.
4. Anxiety and depressive feelings are strongly present especially when the diagnosis is not clear yet.

Answer indication

Question 1

B. A tumour that originates from the brain tissue, the cerebral nerves, the pituitary gland or the meninges.

Question 2

B. Cognitive impairments are the most important characteristic of rare tumours.

Question 3

D. Anxiety and depressive feelings are strongly present especially when the diagnosis is not clear yet.

What alcohol-related cognitive impairments occur? - ExamTests 18

Questions

Question 1

What is the cause of memory impairments in alcohol-related disorders?

1. A chronic B1 deficiency.
2. Blood poisoning.
3. Inhibition of NMDA-receptors.
4. Damage to the amygdala.

Question 2

What is Korsakoff's syndrome?

1. An amnestic syndrome in which the patient has great difficulty learning new information and digging up present information.
2. An amnestic syndrome in which only the learning of new information is seriously affected.
3. An aphasia that is characterized by stuttering and incoherent speech.
4. An aphasia characterized by disturbed understanding of language.

Question 3

What is the cause of Korsakoff's syndrome?

1. Long-term alcohol abuse.
2. A long-term lack of thiamine / B1.
3. Binge drinking.
4. An allergic reaction to alcohol.

Question 4

Which of the following is not a characteristic of patients with Korsakoff's syndrome?

1. Confabulation.
2. Problems in executive functions.
3. A retrograde memory disorder.
4. Sickness awareness and self-improvement.

Answer indication

Question 1

C. Inhibition of NMDA-receptors.

Question 2

A. An amnestic syndrome in which the patient has great difficulty learning new information and digging up present information.

Question 3

B. A long-term lack of thiamine / B1.

Question 4

D. Sickness awareness and self-improvement.

What is Alzheimer's disease? - ExamTests 19

Questions

Question 1

Which of the following is not a risk factor for Alzheimer's disease?

1. Gender, especially being a woman.
2. Age.
3. Intelligence.
4. Genetic predisposition.

Question 2

Patient F. (82) recently experienced problems in interacting with other people (social cognition). In addition, he is somewhat forgetful. The symptoms are not serious enough to diagnose Alzheimer's dementia. Which of the diagnoses below is most likely for patient F. based on the information above?

1. Huntington's disease.
2. An amnestic MCI.
3. An autism spectrum disorder.
4. MCI in multiple domains.

Question 3

What does the 'amyloid-cascade' (AC) hypothesis mean?

1. The 'amyloid precursor protein' is broken down in abnormal proportions to amyloid beta, which causes accumulations.
2. Tau entanglements cause amyloid-beta accumulations.
3. Cerebrovascular damage is the cause of Alzheimer's.
4. Alzheimer's disease is caused by a combination of tau entanglements, accumulations of amyloid beta and cerebrovascular damage.

Question 4

Which of the symptoms below is least characteristic of Alzheimer's disease?

1. Memory impairments.
2. Impairments in orientations.
3. Impairments in language
4. Sleep disorders

Question 5

Which statement about the different forms of dementia is true?

1. In dementia with Lewy bodies, memory problems are more prominent than in Alzheimer's disease.
2. Language impairments are the core symptom of primary progressive aphasia.
3. There is a distinction between cortical dementia and subcortical dementia.
4. Slowness and reduced mental flexibility are mainly seen in semantic dementia.

Answer indication

Question 1

C. Intelligence.

Question 2

D. MCI in multiple domains.

Question 3

A. The 'amyloid precursor protein' is broken down in abnormal proportions to amyloid beta, which causes accumulations.

Question 4

D. Sleep disorders

Question 5

B. Language impairments are the core symptom of primary progressive aphasia.

What is frontotemporal dementia? - ExamTests 20

Questions

Question 1

Which of the following statements about the behavioural variant of frontotemporal dementia (BV-FTD) is incorrect?

1. In BV-FTD there are changes in personality and social behaviour.
2. Patients with BV-FTD do have language impairments, but will not become passive in conversations or become mutistic.
3. Sometimes a patient with BV-FTD develops a motor impairment.
4. In BV-FTD there is a lack of initiative, personal neglect, and irresponsible behavior.

Question 2

Patient J. experiences problems in speech. During an appointment with a neurologist, it is noticeable that she has a good understanding of language, but that language production is affected. J. notices that she has difficulty finding and pronouncing words and improves herself. Furthermore, she has no other cognitive impairments. A depression index shows that she has a number of symptoms of depression. Which diagnosis is most likely?

1. Progressive non-fluent aphasia (PFNA).
2. Semantic dementia (SD).
3. Alzheimer's disease.
4. The behavioral variant of frontotemporal dementia.

Question 3

Which symptoms are indispensable in diagnosing BV-FTD?

1. Deterioration of social behaviour, including emotional blunting, poor insight, and impairments in regulating behaviour.
2. Poor insight, language disorders and a visuoperceptual disorder.
3. Agrammatism, word-finding problems, phonematic paraphasias and faltering speech.
4. Disorder in verbal semantics, problems in regulating behaviour and poor insight into the illness.

Question 4

Which symptoms are indispensable in diagnosing PNFA?

1. Deterioration of social behaviour, including emotional blunting, poor insight, and impairments in regulating behaviour.
2. Poor insight, language disorders and a visuoperceptual disorder.
3. Agrammatism, word-finding problems, phonematic paraphasias and faltering speech.
4. Disorder in verbal semantics, problems in regulating behaviour and poor insight into the illness.

Question 5

What is not a characteristic of SD with regard to cognition?

1. Disturbed semantic understanding.
2. Word finding problems.
3. Visual perceptual disorders.
4. Impaired implicit memory.

Answer indication

Question 1

B. Patients with BV-FTD do have language impairments, but will not become passive in conversations or become mutistic.

Question 2

A. Progressive non-fluent aphasia (PFNA).

Question 3

A. Deterioration of social behaviour, including emotional blunting, poor insight, and impairments in regulating behaviour.

Question 4

C. Agrammatism, word-finding problems, phonematic paraphasias and faltering speech.

Question 5

D. Impaired implicit memory.

What disorders belong to the Parkinson spectrum? - ExamTests 21

Questions

Question 1

What are the characteristics of the motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease according to Wolters?

1. Rigidity and slowness of movement.
2. Rest tremor, rigidity, lack of movement, and postural instability
3. Rest tremor, pain in limbs, loss of consciousness, and rigidity
4. Loss of consciousness, rest tremor, and postural instability

Question 2

Which statement with regard to the other symptoms (in addition to motor) is incorrect?

1. A large proportion of patients suffer from pain.
2. Patients with Parkinson's disease often suffer from excessive sweating and bladder problems.
3. Patients with Parkinson's disease often suffer from psychoses.
4. Patients with Parkinson's disease usually have no sleeping disorders.

Question 3

What is true with regard to the cause of Parkinson's disease?

1. It is unclear why the motor symptoms arise.
2. Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons ultimately results in reduced activity of the motor cortex.
3. Symptoms of Parkinson's disease arise after the disappearance of 10% of responsible neurons.
4. In Parkinson's disease only the motor cortex is damaged.

Answer indication

Question 1

B. Rest tremor, rigidity, lack of movement, and postural instability

Question 2

D. Patients with Parkinson's disease usually have no sleeping disorders.

Question 3

B. Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons ultimately results in reduced activity of the motor cortex.

What is Huntington's Disease? - ExamTests 22

Questions

Question 1

How is Huntington's disease being diagnosed?

1. By looking at family history of the disease, and an MRI scan.
2. By looking at motor disorders, an anamnesis, and a CT scan.
3. By looking at familial history of the disease, motor disorders, and a confirmation of the disease by DNA testing.
4. By a confirmation of the disease by DNA testing, an MRI scan, and an anamnesis.

Question 2

Which protein is responsible for Huntington's disease?

1. Huntingtin
2. Tryptophan
3. Lysine
4. Methionine

Question 3

Patients with Huntington's disease have movement impairments, which are mainly characterized by chorea and hypokinesia. What do these two concepts mean?

1. Chorea is the decrease in occurrence of spontaneous movements; Hypokinesia is rigidity around the joints.
2. Chorea is the excessive vibration of the muscles; hypokinesia is the gradual increase in involuntary movements.
3. Chorea is rigidity around the joints; Hypokinesia is the excessive vibration of the muscles.
4. Chorea is an increase in involuntary movements; Hypokinesia is a decrease in spontaneous movements.

Question 4

What characterizes the executive functioning of patients with Huntington's disease?

1. There are hardly any restrictions with regard to executive functioning.
2. There are serious problems in executive functions from the beginning.
3. There are mainly problems in taking initiative, planning, self-monitoring and self-inhibition.
4. There are only problems in executive functioning at a very advanced stage.

Question 5

What is true with regard to the neuropsychiatry of Huntington's disease?

1. Irritability is one of the first symptoms and is especially difficult for the patient.
2. Depression is common and is always secondary in response to the disease process.
3. There is almost never apathy in patients with Huntington's disease.
4. Patients are often inhibited, and this can manifest itself in all areas.

Answer indication

Question 1

C. By looking at familial history of the disease, motor disorders, and a confirmation of the disease by DNA testing.

Question 2

A. Huntingtin

Question 3

D. Chorea is an increase in involuntary movements; Hypokinesia is a decrease in spontaneous movements.

Question 4

C. There are mainly problems in taking initiative, planning, self-monitoring and self-inhibition.

Question 5

D. Patients are often inhibited, and this can manifest itself in all areas.

What is multiple sclerosis? - ExamTests 23

Questions

Question 1

What is true with regard to multiple sclerosis (MS)?

1. The course of MS is always progressive.
2. MS is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system.
3. MS arises around the 40th year of life.
4. MS is characterized by demyelination and inflammation of the white matter.

Question 2

What is the Uhthoff's phenomenon?

1. Patients experience more symptoms when it gets hotter.
2. Patients experience more symptoms after paying attention.
3. Patients experience fewer symptoms when it gets hotter.
4. Patients experience fewer symptoms after paying attention.

Question 3

Up to three years ago, patient W. had both periods of remissions and periods of exacerbations, but currently there only seems to be deterioration. Which form of MS did W. have until three years ago and what form does he currently have?

1. Secondary progressive MS up to three years ago, currently primarily progressive MS.
2. Up to three years ago primary progressive MS, currently secondary progressive MS.
3. Up to three years ago relapsing-remitting MS, currently secondary progressive MS.
4. Up to three years ago relapsing-remitting MS, currently primarily progressive MS.

Question 4

What does the inflammatory hypothesis say with regard to the development of MS?

1. Due to a lack of vitamin D, inflammatory reactions occur, which can cause MS.
2. The complaints mainly arise from inflammation of the white matter.
3. There is an inflammatory response that allows T lymphocytes to attack the myelin.
4. The complaints mainly arise from dilation of the ventricles.

Question 5

What is true with regard to cognitive functioning and MS?

1. There is a strong relationship between the severity of cognitive impairment and the severity of MS.
2. Patients already have difficulty with simple attention tasks.
3. The speed of information processing is not affected.
4. The amount of cortical atrophy and the width of the third ventricle predict cognitive functioning in particular.

Answer indication

Question 1

D. MS is characterized by demyelination and inflammation of the white matter.

Question 2

A. Patients experience more symptoms when it gets hotter.

Question 3

C. Up to three years ago relapsing-remitting MS, currently secondary progressive MS.

Question 4

C. There is an inflammatory response that allows T lymphocytes to attack the myelin.

Question 5

D. The amount of cortical atrophy and the width of the third ventricle predict cognitive functioning in particular.

What is schizophrenia? - ExamTests 24

Questions

Question 1

What are Bleuer's four A's?

1. Ambivalence, blunted affect, aphasia and absence.
2. Ambivalence, autism, aphasia and absence.
3. Ambivalence, blunted affect, autism and loosening of association.
4. Autism, aphasia, absence and association weakness.

Question 2

What is needed for a diagnosis of schizophrenia when a patient does not hear voices talking or commenting on his / her behaviour during hallucinations?

1. The presence of two of the following symptoms for at least two months: negative symptoms, delusions and hallucinations, incoherent speech, severe chaotic or correct catatonic behavior, reduced social functioning.
2. The presence of two of the following symptoms for at least six months: negative symptoms, delusions and hallucinations, inconsistent speech, serious chaotic or catatonic behavior, reduced social functioning.
3. The presence of two of the following criteria for at least two months: delusions and hallucinations, cognitive impairments, impaired executive functioning and reduced social functioning.
4. The presence of two of the following symptoms for at least six months: delusions and hallucinations, cognitive impairments, impaired executive functioning and reduced social functioning.

Question 3

What is the source-monitoring bias?

1. Having difficulty distinguishing one's own thoughts from the thoughts of others.
2. A cognitive style of thinking in which the patient draws a conclusion without sufficient evidence.
3. Paying more attention to negative stimuli.
4. Better remembering of negative stimuli.

Answer indication

Question 1

C. Ambivalence, blunted affect, autism and loosening of association.

Question 2

B. The presence of two of the following symptoms for at least six months: negative symptoms, delusions and hallucinations, inconsistent speech, serious chaotic or catatonic behavior, reduced social functioning.

Question 3

A. Having difficulty distinguishing one's own thoughts from the thoughts of others.

What are depression and bipolar disorder? - ExamTests 25

Questions

Question 1

Patient S. (29) has been suffering from anxiety, inferiority feelings, energy loss, fatigue and feels sad for four months. Her work and hobbies such as gardening and volleyball keep her going, but she visits a psychologist to prevent the symptoms from getting worse. Why can't S. be officially diagnosed with depression?

1. Her symptoms do not last long enough to diagnose depression.
2. She shows just four of the six sub-symptoms that are necessary for diagnosis.
3. There should be a loss of interest for diagnosing a depression.
4. Suicidality must be present for a diagnosis.

Question 2

What is true?

1. Bipolar I disorder includes depression and mania.
2. Bipolar II disorder is more common in men.
3. A depression lasts on average one year.
4. People can recover relatively easily from bipolar II disorder.

Question 3

When is a cognitive impairment a 'trait' characteristic?

1. If the severity of the disorder is related to disease factors such as the duration of the disease.
2. If the disorder is caused by a personality trait.
3. If the severity of the disorder depends on personality traits.
4. If the disorder persists after the illness.

Question 4

Patient U. experiences a depression for the second time. He tells that he feels guilty about the relapse and that he blames himself. The fact that the marriage of U. and his wife is going well for the time being is mainly due to her compassion. The therapist sees a pattern: what is this pattern called?

1. Attention bias.
2. Negative attribution style.
3. Pessimism bias.
4. Negative self-schedule.

Answer indication

Question 1

C. There should be a loss of interest for diagnosing a depression.

Question 2

A. Bipolar I disorder includes depression and mania.

Question 3

D. If the disorder persists after the illness.

Question 4

B. Negative attribution style.

What are autism spectrum disorders? - ExamTests 26

Questions

Question 1

Patient O. has problems in social interactions and he shows stereotypical interests and behaviours. He does not seem to have problems in language. Which diagnosis is most likely?

1. No diagnosis.
2. PDD-NOS.
3. Asperger's syndrome.
4. Autistic disorder.

Question 2

Diagnosing autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is more difficult in adults. What is not a reason for this difficulty?

1. There is often a more subtle form of ASD.
2. Over time, patients have learned social behaviour that camouflages or compensates for their ASD.
3. There are many comorbid disorders.
4. The differential diagnosis between ASD and depression is difficult to make.

Question 3

What statement is true?

1. ASD is genetically determined to a small extent.
2. More men than women are diagnosed with ASD.
3. The number of patients diagnosed with ASD has decreased in recent decades.
4. Most patients with ASD have a macrocephaly: a significantly smaller head circumference.

Question 4

What does the 'emphatising-systemising' theory entail?

1. The idea that ASD is an extreme form of male thinking.
2. The idea that information is not automatically processed as a whole, but in fragments at a local level.
3. The idea that problems with ToM cause reduced empathy and an increase in systematic thinking systems.
4. The idea that abnormal executive functions are responsible for symptoms of ASD.

Answer indication

Question 1

C. Asperger's syndrome.

Question 2

D. The differential diagnosis between ASD and depression is difficult to make.

Question 3

A. ASD is genetically determined to a small extent.

Question 4

B. The idea that information is not automatically processed as a whole, but in fragments at a local level.

What is psychopathy? - ExamTests 27

Questions

Question 1

How is psychopathy usually diagnosed?

1. Based on facial features such as wide jaws.
2. On the basis of behavioural analysis.
3. Based on the NEO personality questionnaire.
4. Based on the PPI questionnaire.

Question 2

What does the 'Response Modulation Hypothesis' state?

1. Peripheral stimuli are not properly processed by psychopaths.
2. Psychopaths don't have a normal anxiety response.
3. Psychopaths have a disorder in the 'violence inhibition' mechanism.
4. Psychopaths make their responses depend on errors in thinking and an aggressive processing system.

Question 3

What does the 'Low Fear Model' say?

1. Peripheral stimuli are not properly processed by psychopaths.
2. Psychopaths don't have a normal anxiety response.
3. Psychopaths have a disorder in the 'violence inhibition' mechanism
4. Psychopaths make their responses depend on errors in thinking and an aggressive processing system.

Question 4

Which system is not part of the Integrated Emotion System?

1. The system involved in the transmission of sensory representations.
2. The system that plays a role in making quick decisions based on expected pay or punishment, disrupted by psychopaths.
3. The system that receives and uses representations.
4. The system that assigns emotions to stimuli.

Question 5

What is not true with regard to cognitive impairments in psychopaths?

1. Psychopaths learn from reward rather than punishment.
2. Psychopaths have trouble detecting errors.
3. Psychopaths experience many problems within attention.
4. Psychopaths experience many problems within social cognition.

Answer indication

Question 1

D. Based on the PPI questionnaire.

Question 2

A. Peripheral stimuli are not properly processed by psychopaths.

Question 3

B. Psychopaths don't have a normal anxiety response.

Question 4

D. The system that assigns emotions to stimuli.

Question 5

C. Psychopaths experience many problems within attention.